Matthew 24:14 vs Colossians 1:5-6

Mathew 24 is directed at Israel. Look at verse 9: “Then they will deliver you up to tribulation, and put you to death; and you will be hated by all nations for my name’s sake.

Anytime you see the word "nations", it is speaking of the gentiles.

How do you reconcile these scriptures? Has the end come? Has the Lord returned? Why or why not?

Matthew 24:14 And this gospel of the kingdom shall be preached in all the world for a witness unto all nations; and then shall the end come.

Colossians 1:5 For the hope which is laid up for you in heaven, whereof ye heard before in the word of the truth of the gospel;
6 Which is come unto you, as it is in all the world; and bringeth forth fruit, as it doth also in you, since the day ye heard of it, and knew the grace of God in truth:

How do you reconcile these scriptures? Has the end come? Has the Lord returned? Why or why not?

Matthew 24:14 And this gospel of the kingdom shall be preached in all the world for a witness unto all nations; and then shall the end come.

Colossians 1:5 For the hope which is laid up for you in heaven, whereof ye heard before in the word of the truth of the gospel;
6 Which is come unto you, as it is in all the world; and bringeth forth fruit, as it doth also in you, since the day ye heard of it, and knew the grace of God in truth:

It should be evident that the word "world" is not being used in the same sense in these two passages. Paul may have been referring to the world as encompassed by the Roman empire. But Jesus was speaking about the entire globe and the necessity for the Gospel of the Kingdom (which is another term for the Gospel of Christ) to be preached to every nation and every creature.

There can be no doubt that there is no one on earth who has not heard of Jesus. Even the Quran mentions Jesus. But has the true and full Gospel been preached as Christ intended? For example, the influence of the Roman Catholic Church has been very extensive worldwide and for many centuries. And through that people have heard of Jesus through the Jesuits (the Society of Jesus). But did they preach the true Gospel, or did they preach another gospel?

Matthew 24:14 is clear and thus Colossians 1:5 must be interpreted with that in mind.. In all the world in collosians can simply be interpreted as meaning this is how it happens everywhere in this world.. That is the Word brings forth fruit, that is has it's effect in our world no matter where it is given and received..

The word "world" in Matthew 24:14 is oikoumene, or 'inhabited earth'. In Colossians 1:6, it is kosmos.

Paul preached the same gospel that Jesus preached: salvation by faith, which is the same for the Jew and for the gentile. There is no "gospel" of the earthly restoration of Israel.

The word "world" in Matthew 24:14 is oikoumene, or 'inhabited earth'. In Colossians 1:6, it is kosmos.

Paul preached the same gospel that Jesus preached: salvation by faith, which is the same for the Jew and for the gentile. There is no "gospel" of the earthly restoration of Israel.

That’s using a private interpretation to fit a certain theology. ’m not willing to do this.

The two verses cannot be in opposition and both be correct.. How do you then reconsile the two?

See post #12 The gospel of the kingdom is not the same message that Paul preached. The gospel Paul preached was a mystery since the world began, but now is made manifest.

Romans 16
25 Now to him that is of power to stablish you according to my gospel, and the preaching of Jesus Christ, according to the revelation of the mystery, which was kept secret since the world began,
26 But now is made manifest, and by the scriptures of the prophets, according to the commandment of the everlasting God, made known to all nations for the obedience of faith:

How do you reconcile these scriptures? Has the end come? Has the Lord returned? Why or why not?

Matthew 24:14 And this gospel of the kingdom shall be preached in all the world for a witness unto all nations; and then shall the end come.

Colossians 1:5 For the hope which is laid up for you in heaven, whereof ye heard before in the word of the truth of the gospel;
6 Which is come unto you, as it is in all the world; and bringeth forth fruit, as it doth also in you, since the day ye heard of it, and knew the grace of God in truth:

So you take the positon that Paul preached a different Gospel then Jesus..

Which “end” do you think it refers to? Jesus clears this up in Luke, cited below.
Mt 13: “37 And He said, “The one who sows the good seed is the Son of Man, 38 and the field is the world; and as for the good seed, these are the sons of the kingdom; and the weeds are the sons of the evil one; 39 and the enemy who sowed them is the devil, and the harvest is the END OF THE AGE; and the reapers are angels. 40 So just as the weeds are gathered up and burned with fire, so shall it be at the END OF THE AGE.”

1 Pet 4: “7 The END of all things is near…”

Luke 21: “9 When you hear of wars and disturbances, do not be terrified; for these things must take place first, but the END does not follow immediately."
Luke 21 is the sister passage of Mt 24.

Does not Paul teach if any teach another gospel other than that of Jesus Christ (Yeshaua) let him be accursed.

Is not the Gospel first given to Abraham a lie?

Did Paul add to the Gospel as given by our Messiah?

There is only ONE gospel. Paul does not and never had one aside from that which we all received from our Savior.