Once saved always saved (OSAS) debunked

Seeing how we both agree that God is just, in your estimation, would it be just for God to condemn an infant or young child to the second death when they had no knowledge of good and evil prior to dying?

In my estimation, it wouldn't be just at all, and I believe that my estimation perfectly aligns itself with scripture; some of which I've previously quoted.

Anyway, like I said, I'm really not trying to single you out or anything. I chose to pose my question to you, but it was really a question for each and every one of us to hopefully consider in the light of the full counsel of God's word.

This specific aspect of this conversation reminds me of a scene from the "John Wyckliffe: The Morningstar" movie that I saw many years ago. You, or anybody else, can view that clip starting at the 13:40 mark if you'd like to.

I'm happy to hear that.

2 Samuel 12:22-23
…22David answered, “While the child was alive, I fasted and wept, for I said, ‘Who knows? The LORD may be gracious to me and let him live.’ 23But now that he is dead, why should I fast? Can I bring him back again? I will go to him, but he will not return to me.”

David believed he would see his son again , but not in his life time on earth...

Precious friend, two Scriptures came to my mind, for 'food for thought':

1) Under the law, I don't believe David's child with Bathsheba was water
'baptized' (agree, Unbiblical), but these have comforted many a distraught
mother grieving for their children, who passed in miscarriages/youth:

+
2) Under Grace, today, Paul teaches this "food for thought":

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Precious friend(s):

Grace, Peace, And JOY In Christ, And In His Word Of Truth, Rightly
Divided (+ I and II)!

I was thinking about the situation with David's child all along, and that was mentioned in the clip from the Wycliffe movie that I linked to.

Personally, I do believe that there is some sort of age of accountability, but that could differ with different people based upon their levels of understanding.

Rom 7:7
What shall we say then? Is the law sin? God forbid. Nay, I had not known sin, but by the law: for I had not known lust, except the law had said, Thou shalt not covet.

Rom 7:8
But sin, taking occasion by the commandment, wrought in me all manner of concupiscence. For without the law sin was dead.

Rom 7:9
For I was alive without the law once: but when the commandment came, sin revived, and I died.

Every time this subject is discussed the 'baby card' is played. IMO this shows a lack of grasping the Grace and Mercy of our Lord. Once again mankind is doing his best to out grace ,mercy or even save God . Salvation is not owned by man it belongs to God .

Psa 3:8 Salvation belongeth unto the LORD: thy blessing is upon thy people. Selah.

Well, your opinion seems to need some adjusting. The "baby card" that I allegedly "played" is in God-given scripture, and it needs to be considered alongside all other God-given scriptures.

There's possibly another variable to all of this as well, and I somewhat hesitate to even suggest it. That variable might be God's foreknowledge. In other words, there are times in scripture where even infants or children were killed at God's command or doing, and that makes me wonder if God's foreknowledge didn't have a part to play in all of that.

Exo 15:13
Thou in thy mercy hast led forth the people which thou hast redeemed: thou hast guided them in thy strength unto thy holy habitation.

Proverbs 1:8-9; Proverbs 22:6

Take heed Runningman. That's all I have to say about it.....

Eph 1:3
Blessed be the God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ, who hath blessed us with all spiritual blessings in heavenly places in Christ:

Eph 1:4
According as he hath chosen us in him before the foundation of the world, that we should be holy and without blame before him in love:

Eph 1:5
Having predestinated us unto the adoption of children by Jesus Christ to himself, according to the good pleasure of his will,

Eph 1:6
To the praise of the glory of his grace, wherein he hath made us accepted in the beloved.

Eph 1:7
In whom we have redemption through his blood, the forgiveness of sins, according to the riches of his grace;

Eph 1:8
Wherein he hath abounded toward us in all wisdom and prudence;

Eph 1:9
Having made known unto us the mystery of his will, according to his good pleasure which he hath purposed in himself:

Eph 1:10
That in the dispensation of the fulness of times he might gather together in one all things in Christ, both which are in heaven, and which are on earth; even in him:

Eph 1:11
In whom also we have obtained an inheritance, being predestinated according to the purpose of him who worketh all things after the counsel of his own will:

Eph 1:12
That we should be to the praise of his glory, who first trusted in Christ.

Rom 9:20 Nay but, O man, who art thou that repliest against God? Shall the thing formed say to him that formed it, Why hast thou made me thus?
Rom 9:21 Hath not the potter power over the clay, of the same lump to make one vessel unto honour, and another unto dishonour?
Rom 9:22 What if God, willing to shew his wrath, and to make his power known, endured with much longsuffering the vessels of wrath fitted to destruction:

Do those who respond to and are thankful for God's mercy become "vessels of mercy"?

Rom 9:23
And that he might make known the riches of his glory on the vessels of mercy, which he had afore prepared unto glory,

One mans sin ONCE was enough to curse the entire creation, universe, animal kingdom, and doom Adam's entire line to condemnation and death.

This answers what sin DOES. And infers what it is. And it is not trivial.

I don't see it that way. I think we kinda agree a little bit because through one man's sin death reigned, but it's opposite of God’s abundant provision of grace and of the gift of righteousness through the one man Jesus Christ.

Think about it like this:

If you're saying all people are sinners because of Adam then it must be equally true that all people have grace and righteousness because of Jesus Christ. It's a simple question of who is greater: Adam or Jesus Christ?

This is how I know you're interpreting this wrong because Universalism, whether it be universal sin because of Adam or universal salvation because of Jesus, is false. There is a choice to make on account of each person as to whether they sin or not. Likewise, there's a choice on account of each person as to whether they place their faith in Christ or not.


Romans 5
17For if, by the trespass of the one man, death reigned through that one man, how much more will those who receive God’s abundant provision of grace and of the gift of righteousness reign in life through the one man, Jesus Christ!

Yes, what it does or rather what it can do.

So Adam made everyone a sinner against their will but Jesus couldn’t make everyone righteous against their will?

Who is greater: Adam or Jesus? Evil or goodness? Dark or light? Wickedness or righteousness? That’s my point, a valid one at that.

I really hope you know the answers to these questions.