What Does It Mean That God Desires All People To Be Saved?

That's right. What he did not do was force His gift upon us. God has OFFERED salvation to all men.


The uttermost in giving Himself would be to offer His gift to everyone possible, which is exactly what He has done.

That is because they have chosen not to.
Romans 1:
18 For the wrath of God is revealed from heaven against all ungodliness and unrighteousness of men, who hold the truth in unrighteousness;
19 Because that which may be known of God is manifest in them; for God hath shewed it unto them.
20 For the invisible things of him from the creation of the world are clearly seen, being understood by the things that are made, even his eternal power and Godhead; so that they are without excuse:
21 Because that, when they knew God, they glorified him not as God, neither were thankful; but became vain in their imaginations, and their foolish heart was darkened.
22 Professing themselves to be wise, they became fools,


Love is not something you can force upon someone. Once something is forced, it is no longer love.

...is God's desire for all men to be saved fulfilled if someone doesn't get saved.

I do believe that mankind does have some freewill in making the choice of accepting God's gift of Salvation. But like others have pointed out, just because God has that desire, it might not be reciprocated.
So yes, God does have that desire, but He doesn't force us to desire it as well. IMHO.

The word "hate" is a Hebraism which does not contradict the nature of God, it simply indicates the secondary position of Esau in the order of God's preferences. The same word is used in Luke 14:26. The idea is not that of hatred, but of position in a hierarchy; rephrased, it would be like this: whoever puts his family above Jesus Christ, cannot be His disciple.

I was responding to the question posed that if God must do good, what does that mean? In doing good, does
that mean to His possible limits or not and can a negative human outcome be included in God doing good?

I recommend you to read the book Jesus, The Son of Man, by Khalil Gibran. The book shows the perspective of different people (Matthew, Mary Magdalene, Joseph of Arimathea, Judas the Iscariot, Pilates, Caiaphas, a widow, a shepherd, John etc.) on Jesus Christ after they meet Him.

how was Moctezuma II offered salvation?

it takes special revelation found in the Bible for a person to be saved, doesn't it?

That's very interesting. So God's desire is that people will seek after Him? Since the Bible says none seek after God, would God have to act to go get them?

Rom 1 is directed to those of spiritual Israel who are disobedient in turning away from God.

I recommend you to read the book Jesus, The Son of Man, by Khalil Gibran. The book shows the perspective of different people (Matthew, Mary Magdalene, Joseph of Arimathea, Judas the Iscariot, Pilates, Caiaphas, a widow, a shepherd, John etc.) on Jesus Christ after they meet Him.

Was he not a son of Adam and Noah? Noah found grace in the eyes of the Lord. His faith was counted as righteousness, which is counted as salvation.


It took the faith sought out by men like Enoch, Noah, and Abraham, which was available to every man ever created until the time further revelation was given.

No, it is not. Love does not demand that one's desire for it be fulfilled. That is not how love works.


IMHO your HO is a fact.

Do you believe that Paul is stating no unbeliever seeks God?

What Paul is asserting in context is that they a can and should but often they do not.
They should be seeking the God who is revealed in creation (Rom 1:20-21).
Since God rewards those who diligently seek Him (Heb 11:6), the search for God will lead to an examination of the claims of Christ.
People are held accountable by God for not seeking and believing.

This is the correct understanding so we do not end up with contradictions and paradoxes.

And He has made from one [a]blood every nation of men to dwell on all the face of the earth, and has determined their preappointed times and the boundaries of their dwellings, 27 so that they should seek the Lord, in the hope that they might grope for Him and find Him, though He is not far from each one of us;
Acts 17:26-27

I think a better explanation is that God inclines Himself toward one and not the other.

God's desire is that people will seek after Him?

the Bible says none seek after God

would God have to act to go get them?

Paul is quoting scripture. What he quotes is a picture of the unregenerated condition of fallen mankind. Acts 17 speaks to God's action towards mankind. The 2 aren't incompatible nor dependent on each other to be true.

It means that Esau's time was not then, not that God ignores him forever. With Esau God had other plans.

Sure.

There have indeed been times and places where none have sought Him. That does not mean that He was not accessible.

That is what He has done and continues to do through you and I when we yield to His Spirit.

All 3 of these men were sought out by God, not the other way around.

So God's desire is that people will seek after Him?

Psalm 10:4 says, “The wicked in his proud countenance does not seek God.”
Psalm does not say that no one seeks God. It is the wicked who do not seek God.
I guess you want to assert all unbelievers fall under the label “the wicked.”

But that is a stttrrr ...eee.... e .... ee .... tchhh.

I really do not think Psalms should be read that way.

Once again, a thread with undertones of Calvinism, I stand by my first post on this thread, what God desires is simply that, no need to over complicate is to make it fit a broader schema.

Psalm 10:4 says, “The wicked in his proud countenance does not seek God.”
Psalm does not say that no one seeks God. It is the wicked who do not seek God.
I guess you want to assert all unbelievers fall under the label “the wicked.”