What Does It Mean That God Desires All People To Be Saved?

1 Timothy 2:
3 For this is good and acceptable in the sight of God our Saviour;
4 Who will have all men to be saved, and to come unto the knowledge of the truth.
5 For there is one God, and one mediator between God and men, the man Christ Jesus;
6 Who gave himself a ransom for all, to be testified in due time.

That is a beautiful passage. I fail to see how that would cause anyone to be troubled.


Revelation 3:20 certainly is for all men and certainly is about salvation. When a man opens his heart's door to Jesus, Jesus comes in to stay. That's not an opinion. That is a fact.
Revelation 3:20
“Behold, I stand at the door, and knock: if any man hear my voice, and open the door, I will come in to him, and will sup with him, and he with me.”

This is part of a letter to a church of the day, but this can be said of the vast majority of NT writings. This is the Gospel of Jesus. It is the same message that is proclaimed in John 3. Jesus desires a personal relationship with every man, women, and child ever born... and yes, that is salvation. That is what He died on the cross to make freely available to all.


Mercy is freely available to all and to all who reject it justice shall be applied in it's stead.

I believe this verse is speaking of fellowship with the believer and not salvation.

Let's suppose I am going on a trip. I make all the arrangements, set a date, and wait. But I also would like it to be a family excursion. I desire their company.

Is it considered a desire if I only have a strong feeling of wanting? Do I need to do anything to make my desire a desire? If I volunteer to incur all the expenses for my family does this make it a desire when before it wasn't? What if I only volunteered to pay for some family members? Does this affect whether it is a desire or lessen the desire to have the company of my family?

I ask these questions so they will be top of mind when asking the same questions about God's desire that all people are saved? Can God's desire for the salvation of people be independent of people? Does God have to do anything for people in order for His desire to be genuine? If so, does He have to act equally towards all people for His desire to be real?

I'm not attempting to offer this as proof of one set of ideas over another. It is simply to understand the nature of what is entailed in a desire and what is not. Consequently, and perhaps impossibly, I am asking for unbiased thought. I am asking that as you consider the question, you set aside, as much as is possible, how you would answer based on your other held beliefs, and consider the question independently from other doctrine.

Thanks. And I look forward to your responses.

Can you give me a scripture where God desires something. I thought God purposes, and wills things, and those thing will happen.

Can you give me a scripture where God desires something. I thought God purposes, and wills things, and those thing will happen.

Can you give me a scripture where God desires something. I thought God purposes, and wills things, and those thing will happen.

The initial address of Jesus to unbelievers is to repent, not sup. That's why I believe it deals with fellowship and not salvation.

The initial address of Revelation 3:20 is to open the door of one's heart to Jesus. That is about salvation.
Revelation 3:20
“Behold, I stand at the door, and knock: if any man hear my voice, and open the door, I will come in to him, and will sup with him, and he with me.”

1 Timothy 2:4

I agree that God gives mankind the freedom to choose how he wants to live his life while he resides here on earth, That is why he choose an elect family, because no one desired to seek him. He desires that his elect follow his commandments, but he does not desire anyone to be saved (delivered) eternally, he purposes their eternal salvation (deliverance) by his grace.

I agree that God gives mankind the freedom to choose how he wants to live his life while he resides here on earth, That is why he choose an elect family, because no one desired to seek him. He desires that his elect follow his commandments, but he does not desire anyone to be saved (delivered) eternally, he purposes their eternal salvation (deliverance) by his grace.

he does not desire anyone to be saved (delivered) eternally, he purposes their eternal salvation (deliverance) by his grace.

Thanks for taking the time to answer. I'm familiar with your understanding. The question is can God desire something without acting upon it?

You would rather have God conform to your WARPED THEOLOGY than simply accept the truth. You are so brainwashed and indoctrinated that you would rather die defending lies than give them up for the truth. Extremely sad but an object lesson to all who are not committed to Gospel truth 100%.

The question is can God desire something without acting upon it?

I apologise, I did not word my post correctly.

Didn't God act upon it though? He gave His Son so that the world might be saved? Isn't that something like throwing everyone a lifejacket and all anyone has to do is put it on, and even explaining to everyone that it must be put on. But because there are those that look at it like it's a foolish looking vest and believe he's crazy...

God loved the world and acted. Love does require action. Does desire?

God loved the world and acted. Love does require action. Does desire?

Is unrequited love any less love? God said of Jerusalem, "how often have I desired to gather you like a hen gathers her chicks, but you would not..."