Why does 1 Timothy 4:10 say that Jesus is the "savior of ALL people"?

people

pē′pəl
noun

1. Humans considered as a group or in indefinite numbers. Often treated as a plural of person, especially in compounds.
2. The mass of ordinary persons; the populace. Used with the.
3. A body of persons living in the same country under one national government; a nationality.

I don't think Paul is "hard" to understand. I think 1 Timothy 4:10 (esv) is plain and simple.
"For to this end we toil and strive,[a] because we have our hope set on the living God, who is the Savior of all people, especially of those who believe."

Albert Barnes demonstrated in the piece that you shared earlier in the thread that Paul is a heretic.

His salvation is available to all people but only those who believe and obey will be actually saved.

Mark 16:15-16

15And he said unto them, Go ye into all the world, and preach the gospel to every creature. 16He that believeth and is baptized shall be saved; but he that believeth not shall be damned.


belief + baptism = salvation

So by this we can glean that Jesus didn't actually mean "all" people just "some" people.

John 12:32 And I, when I am lifted up from the earth, will draw ALL people to myself.”

You don't believe that God tortures people every minute of every day forever and ever?

No. I believe what Scripture attests to from beginning to end: the
wages of sin is death. The wicked will perish. They are destroyed.


Our God is a Consuming Fire

before we go further, Do you believe Jesus is the way to eternal life? I think you do. Do you follow Jesus teachings? I hope you do, In that case you are saved. People who reject Jesus knowingly will not be.

Off for today, have a nice evening everyone Ill be back tomorrow, signing off.

Cheers.

I've heard that Jesus saves.

No one will be tortured day and night for all eternity.

The rest of that verse clarifies everything. If all would repent and believe, all would be saved. But in fact he is the Savior of those who believe on Him.

That is a silly statement since God is not in the torture business. But He is in the justice business.

Okay.

Where does Paul say that?

God is most definitely not in the torture business. I concur with your estimation.

Paul may be a chauvinist but not a heretic.

Whatever version you are using, I suggest a good translation instead of yours. Your "everyone" is all people in the translation ESV. This one betrays the "translator's" own meaning, that is, universalism that says all people will be saved.

However, Paul immediately qualifies his statement by saying that Jesus is the Savior "especially of those who believe." For example, the famous verse John 3:16 seems to imply that God will save all people (the world), but the following verses clarify that only believers are saved. The usual interpretation is correct in saying that Jesus' death and resurrection are capable of saving everyone but only effective for true believers.

He was neither, because he lifted women up to a high status; "Husbands, love your wives as Christ loved the church," whereas women had the status of slaves or property before Paul. In other words, husbands are to serve their wives' every need, and then God will make them servant-leaders in their marriages. He is dealing with roles, not status before God, which Moses also depicted in Genesis 2 after he clearly made male and female equal in status in chapter one.

You are trying to deliberately misrepresent what is written. Your question was already answered. And then to add insult to injury by suggesting that Paul was a heretic? What next? And no Paul was not a chauvinist either. Christians have now taken to insulting the apostles, which shows that we are in the Great Apostasy. Only those who obey the Gospel are saved, and Universalism is a lie.