The Error of KJV-Onlyism

No, I have learned over the years that all the false doctrine comes thru seminaries and bible colleges and it's where people go to be indoctrinated to follow the crowd, to follow the traditions of men by accepting reformed theology which is chocked full of error and is not biblical.

So when someone claims they have a degree in pastoral studies, theology, or whatever - that's a sign that they have been indoctrinated into following the traditions of men rather than following what God's Word says

Feel free to follow these pointy headed people that are educated beyond their intellect in the wisdom of men if you so desire, but I'll pass.

I learned this the hard way after having attended churches as a young man that taught false doctrine that led to living in defeat which is NOT what God's Word teaches for those who have been been bought and purchased by the Blood of the Lamb





I appreciate that - we'll see how long that lasts! View attachment 261381

Moving the goalposts (or shifting the goalposts) is a metaphor, derived from goal-based sports such as football and hockey, that means to change the rule or criterion (goal) of a process or competition while it is still in progress, in such a way that the new goal offers one side an advantage or disadvantage. (source: Wikipedia)

And here it is...







You are redefining what constitutes "error" so that you can deny that the KJV has any errors. That is exactly the behaviour to which "moving the goalposts" refers.

As for this...


No, we just demand that you use THE SAME STANDARDS for the KJV that you use for every other translation. You will refuse because the KJV cannot stand the degree of scrutiny you apply to anything else.

Yeah as in denying things God said in His Word as they follow reformed theology which is the wisdom of man that they teach as though it is the wisdom of God. False doctrine! (calvinism, luthernism, and catholicism)

OK, so if someone does not enthusiastically agree with you, they are your enemy - I see how you are View attachment 261384

all i'm seeing are transliterations of Pascha

Eos is German for East - and Eoster as a word comes from German translations about the same period of a great antisemitism in the area.

using this imaginary word in a translation of the Bible into a pagan language (like English, zb) is a remnant of trying to remove all things Jewish from Christianity.

Christ died on Pascha. it's a feast day. He rose on Firstfruits. also a feast day. He did that on purpose.

So educated people have been misled, but uneducated people know the truth. Are you c-r-a-z-y???

By you own admission -- I learned this the hard way after having attended churches as a young man that taught false doctrine -- you are contradicting yourself! LOL!

Even funnier: you were a young man that taught false doctrine???

all i'm seeing are transliterations of Pascha

Eos is German for East - and Eoster as a word comes from German translations about the same period of a great antisemitism in the area.

using this imaginary word in a translation of the Bible into a pagan language (like English, zb) is a remnant of trying to remove all things Jewish from Christianity.

Christ died on Pascha. it's a feast day. He rose on Firstfruits. also a feast day. He did that on purpose.

@Bible_Highlighter --- see this thread where some 5 years ago i made an extensive survey of available old manuscripts of Bibles.

"ostern / eostar / astarte" does NOT show up in any Bible anywhere until around the 15th century, and it isn't in English Bibles, but in German ones. and they replace everything in the whole OT with "ishtar" too. it's a result of antisemetic replacement theology, but had become so entrenched in 'christendom' by the time the kj translation comes around that they apparently left it in there even though it is not found in ANY Greek or Hebrew text anywhere, ever. Pascha is ubiquitous in Greek, Pesach in Hebrew.


btw did you know that the gemmatria of "cabal sowing confusion" is 1611?

Look. William Tyndale invented the word “Passover” and before that time, the English word “Easter” was used. That’s the point. Please search perplexity.ai or search elsewhere and it is a basic fact.

You’re not getting it. Who invented the word Passover?

You’re not getting it. Who invented the word Passover?

@Bible_Highlighter --- see this thread where some 5 years ago i made an extensive survey of available old manuscripts of Bibles.

"ostern / eostar / astarte" does NOT show up in any Bible anywhere until around the 15th century, and it isn't in English Bibles, but in German ones. and they replace everything in the whole OT with "ishtar" too. it's a result of antisemetic replacement theology, a point of view Luther is fairly well known to agree with, and who weirdly lived about the same time.

but, this word had become so entrenched in the 'christendom' of the reformation, which largely grew from these Germanic regions, that by the time the kj translation comes around that they apparently left it in there - against all honest scholarship - even though it is not found in ANY Greek or Hebrew text anywhere, ever. Pascha is ubiquitous in Greek, Pesach in Hebrew. they didn't even have the decency to put it all over the entire Bible as if, as has been erroneously claimed, it is indeed synonymous with Pesach. no, only in one place, a nod to human tradition, completely ignoring the fact that the scripture in the languages God chose for it to be recorded says no such thing.

btw did you know that the gemmatria of "cabal sowing confusion" is 1611?

why does "blasphemy of the Holy Spirit" = 1611 in Jewish gematria?

these are not questions with any meaning.

nope.

there was no English translation whatsoever before 'Ostern' started showing up purely in Germanic Bibles. Tyndale took his cues from Luther, who got this imaginary word from a growing tradition of deleting as much Jewishness as possible from Christianity. "Ishtar" was introduced from the Germanic tradition. it is an imaginary word, not a Biblical one. there is 0 legitimate reason for it to be in any translation.

go read the research i pointed to.

Look. William Tyndale invented the word “Passover” and before that time, the English word “Easter” was used. That’s the point. Please search perplexity.ai or search elsewhere and it is a basic fact.

Look. I understand that the word Easter originates in a proto German language, but the word Passover was invented by Tyndale. We see Textus Receptus Bibles before the KJV use Passover and Easter interchangeably in other verses.

We are not on the same page.

*cough*

Wycliffe.

That should give you a clue.

You’re not getting it. Who invented the word Passover?

Yes, years ago I attended some churches that taught the false doctrines of reformed theology.

Since then I have learned to go study God's Word for myself because the false doctrines of reformed theology come from those that are educated in the religious wisdom of mankind in seminaries and bible colleges

So, it was the Spirit of Truth (Holy Spirit of Jesus Christ ) that has proven to be knowledgeable instead of those that have been educated in the religious wisdom of mankind in seminaries and bible colleges

satan uses seminaries and bible colleges to train people in the false doctrines of reformed theology.

Wycliffe Bible.

https://www.perplexity.ai/search/Was-the-English-h8r8HCQdQBuGwsOCo2jkYA

no Astarte here, despite what any occultic links say.

https://www.perplexity.ai/search/Was-the-English-h8r8HCQdQBuGwsOCo2jkYA