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At the point of becoming sin for us, the fellowship of Father-Son had been lost. Jesus was no longer the spotless Lamb of God. Christ was alone. Jesus is showing his humanity.

Psalm 22 is a prophecy that was fulfilled. God did forsake his son. Why? Because, at that moment, Christ became sin for us. God’s eyes are too holy to behold sin. Habakuk 1:13 Thou art of purer eyes than to behold evil, and canst not look on iniquity: wherefore lookest thou upon them that...

Of course not, but to grow in their faith to the fullest. 16 All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness: 17 That the man of God may be perfect, thoroughly furnished unto all good works.

I defend the KJV, you have nothing to defend.

Are you saying that the verse, "faith comes by hearing the word of God" can mean something close to God's word, but it doesn't have to be perfect and complete? Huh?

No sir, what I mean is God's word. Lay aside the KJV for a moment.

Has Nick Sayers ever debated James White on the KJV issue? I'd love to see that. James White talks in circles and glorifies his scholarship.

Does God‘s word contain errors? Does God’s word contain any untruths? Is God’s word completely trustworthy? Btw, faith come by hearing and hearing by the word of God. If you do not have access to God’s word, how are you able to have faith?

Here's your double standard.:LOL: Please post scripture where a whale is not a great fish. Proverbs 26: 4 Answer not a fool according to his folly, lest thou also be like unto him. 5 Answer a fool according to his folly, lest he be wise in his own conceit.

Can you post scripture where God created mammals?;)

What God has done before is laughable madness that he can do it again. Is that your position?

Says who? Modern science? Fish are creatures that live in the sea. Genesis 1:26 And God said, Let us make man in our image, after our likeness: and let them have dominion over the fish of the sea, and over the fowl of the air, and over the cattle, and over all the earth, and over every...

Take the “me” out of those statements and you’re onto something.

If one learned Greek and Hebrew, then they would have to translate the words themselves into English. Yes? That is not avoiding translations, but making yourself the translator.

The bible is not an exhaustive book on God, but it contains everything we need to know from God. If we needed it, it would be in the bible. John 21: 24 This is the disciple which testifieth of these things, and wrote these things: and we know that his testimony is true. 25 And there are also...

His brothers needed the interpreter because Joseph spoke to them in Egyptian. Moses wrote what Joseph spoke in Egyptian, and translated it into Hebrew, yes? Although, Egyptian was the original language that was used.

When the New Testament writers would quote the Old Testament (Mt. 1:23; Mk. 1:2; Lk. 4:4; Jn. 15:25; Acts 1:20; 7:42; I Cor. 2:9; Gal. 3:13, etc.), they had to TRANSLATE from Hebrew to Greek, because the Old Testament was written in Hebrew, but THEY wrote in Greek. So, if a translation cannot...

Joseph’s words he spoke to them to hide his identity were in Egyptian, yes? Those words became part of the Hebrew Scriptures, yes? In order for those words to become part of scripture, they were translated into Hebrew, yes? And that translation became the inspired word of God.

Yes, he was hiding his identity, but the words he spoke in Egyptian were translated to Hebrew and the Hebrew translation became the inspired words of God. A translation can be inspired.

Genesis 42: 22 And Reuben answered them, saying, Spake I not unto you, saying, Do not sin against the child; and ye would not hear? therefore, behold, also his blood is required. 23 And they knew not that Joseph understood them; for he spake unto them by an interpreter.