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Surely such views on God and the Messiah were alien to the apostles and members of the primitive apostolic community, which consisted mainly of Jews.

εγω και ο Πατερ εν εσμεν - I am wiht Father - one we are, - the word εσμεν it is verb in plural number, 1st person (= we are) . The word εν do not mean "one and the same", here it is meant unity, as in Jn 11:52 - "and not only for the nation, but also for the scattered children of God, to...

You mentioned Eusebius, he quotes 29 times in his writings Matthew 28:19 and most often in Eusebius the quote has this form: "Πορευθέντες μαθητεύσατε πάντα τὰ ἔθνη ἐν τῷ ὀνόματί μου" - Go and teach all the nations in My Name (PG t. 20, c. 221, c. 1425, PG t. 22, c. 233, c. 240, c. 241, c. 692...

In the Revelation these words "alpha and omega" are not entirely clear who pronounces them. In Rev. 1:8 it is most likely God-Father (λέγει κύριος ὁ θεός, ὁ ὢν καὶ ὁ ἦν καὶ ὁ ἐρχόμενος, ὁ παντοκράτωρ = YHWH). In Rev 1:10-11 according to TR and KJV this sentence ("I am alpha and omega....") seems...

it could be said without mentioning the reputable scholars because in Greek manuscripts the text is written in letters with a single form (in uncial script text was wih capital letters all text). And what do you suggest? In Greek ancient manuscripts there are no spaces between words or the...

I can not agree with you, because the phrase is constructed in such a way that there is ambiguity in it (most likely this ambiguity is the author's intention). Θεος ην ο Λογος, literally "God was Word", is traditionally understood as "The Word was God" (in sense "what God was, the Word was")...

Authors of the New Testament texts did not always observe the rules of using the article and often deviated from these grammatical rules of the Greek language. With the word "θεος" for example: Lk 20:38, Jn 8:54, Rom 1:7, 8:33 and other.

I think that in the Gospel of John (taking into account the ideological features of the author of this Gospel) here sounds the confession of Jesus, that He is the Lord and God. But perhaps this exclamation, when a person in fear can say "oh my God" (although this is more like an evasion). ----...

Biblical Hebrew text yes, but sometimes these translations which are ancient enough for us can clarify the meaning of the text in biblical Hebrew (variants of translation, including depending on the vowel). Proverbs 30: 4 was recently mentioned on this forum, the word בְּ֝נֹו (his son) have...

I think in this case the opponents of the deity of Christ can turn to the Jewish original, where אֵל גִּבּוֹר also can be translated as "strength, power". As did Aquila, Symmachus and Theodotion in the second century: https://archive.org/stream/origenishexaplor02origuoft#page/448/mode/2up (for...

Thank you for the very interesting post! But I would like to say some of the arguments of opponents of the deity of Jesus (that Jesus is the same God as God the Father). The Messianic Jews and Jehovah's Witnesses have views on the pre-existence of the Messiah in an angelomorphic form. The...

yes it is true, in ancient Rome there was a cult of the emperor, and he was revered as "the son of God". But Hebrews 1: 8 quotes Ps 45 (44): 6 (7) where the psalmist turns to the Jewish monarch.

nom: (ὁ) θεός gen: (τοῦ) θεοῦ dat: (τῷ) θεῷ acc: (τὸν) θεόν voc: θεέ

Opponents of the fact that the Son is called "God" here appeals to the Greek text Heb 1: 8 that in here was used nominative (θεός), and not vocative (θεέ). But the nominative is used as vocative in the Greek New Testament and about this was said above.

By the way, the nominative in Greek is often used as a vocative, for example Mark 15:34 - "Ὁ θεός μου ὁ θεός μου" and Math 27:46 - "Θεέ μου θεέ μου"

In Aquila's translation of Ps 44(45):7 was used vocavite case θεέ (ὁ θρόνος σου, θεέ, εἰς αἰῶνα)

but in these cases, not all is indisputable in Proverbs 30:4 depending on the vowel two variants are possible: name of His son (sing.) and name of His sons (plural) in notes we see another variant of vowel, supported also by LXX: Reading "[ὁ] μονογενὴς θεός" is not indisputable, because...

We can assume that His human nature was mortal and was suffered and had lust, He was also experienced human fear. Ie, both the physical flesh and His soul had human inclination with which He fought. He was tempted, but he stood in the mortal body and did not commit sin, so he was sinless. "7 In...

Yes, it is. there are three variants of punctuation in this place, in original text this phrase have ambiguity.

ὧν οἱ πατέρες καὶ ἐξ ὧν ὁ Χριστὸς τὸ κατὰ σάρκα ὁ ὢν ἐπὶ πάντων θεὸς εὐλογητὸς εἰς τοὺς αἰῶνας ἀμήν in fact in this place everything depends on punctuation. and put a period or comma depends on the publisher of the Greek text. Hodges-Farstad (1984): Lachmann edition (1850): Tischendorf...