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    Has the law been put aside? If so, when?

    That's a great point. And worth some discussion. This will help you to better understabd where I am coming from. We may be closer to agreement than you realize. I'll take this further if you want to discuss it in more detail. But let's start with this. I see a difference between "the law"...
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    Has the law been put aside? If so, when?

    Right. Both are true. Where does that leave us? What interpretation fits both scriptures? That we are under the law, or not under the law?
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    Has the law been put aside? If so, when?

    You are making the words of Paul say something other than what he meant. Just a few verses prior he had this to say about the law. Romans 3:28 For we maintain that a person is justified by faith apart from the works of the law. And then says this prior to that. Romans 3:21 But now apart...
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    Has the law been put aside? If so, when?

    It's not really something we should be doing of our own free will. Even Jesus waiting for the Father to direct him in when to do it and how. It's interesting to see all the different methods Jesus used to heal blindness. There was no set formula for these things. The instructions from the Father...
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    Has the law been put aside? If so, when?

    You don't believe that we are to cast out demons and heal the sick? Why not?
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    Has the law been put aside? If so, when?

    That is interesting what you are saying about the law of faith. But there is no "spirit of the law" biblically speaking.
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    Has the law been put aside? If so, when?

    I'm guessing that is an insult on some level. Correct me if I misunderstood you. Thanks.
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    Has the law been put aside? If so, when?

    No "if"s, "and"s, or "but"s. as far as I am concerned. We are saved in the here and now by faith (belief) through grace. No obligation to the law whatsoever.
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    Has the law been put aside? If so, when?

    I agree, "the law" is a singular thing. You are either under it, or you are not under it. We are under grace, not under law. Can we agree on that?
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    Has the law been put aside? If so, when?

    That's not what I am talking about. Again we are in agreement even though you seem to think we are not. I am saying that the term "the law" (or the Law) can also mean the Books of the Law. Therefore not a reference to the law itself. For instance... Matt.5:17 is talking about the books, not...
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    Has the law been put aside? If so, when?

    Here are some good example of the term "the Law" being used to refer to the Books of the Law. John 1:45 Philip found Nathanael and told him, “We have found the one Moses wrote about in the Law, and about whom the prophets also wrote—Jesus of Nazareth, the son of Joseph.” Acts 13:15 After the...
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    Has the law been put aside? If so, when?

    That sounds like more of an agreement than a disagreement. On what point do we differ? (the NIV uses a small "l") John 1:17 For the law was given through Moses; grace and truth came through Jesus Christ.
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    Has the law been put aside? If so, when?

    Good point. I agree with that. Some claim we are not to keep the letter of the law, but the spirit of the law. There is no "spirit of the law" biblically speaking. The comparision is between the letter and the Spirit. The law is not the Spirit.
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    Has the law been put aside? If so, when?

    A side note? I think that is the key to understanding Matt.5:17 Matthew 5:17 “Do not think that I have come to abolish the Law or the Prophets; I have not come to abolish them but to fulfill them. Luke 24:44 He said to them, “This is what I told you while I was still with you: Everything...
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    Has the law been put aside? If so, when?

    I hear the claim that Jesus followed the law all the time. What I have yet to hear is the biblical proof this claim is based on. Jesus got himself in trouble with the religious leaders over the law. Was it because he was following the law, or not following the law? And in reference to...
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    Has the law been put aside? If so, when?

    After his resurrection Jesus explained what he was saying in Matt.5:17. It was the prophecies about him in the books of the Law that he was fulfilling, not the law itself. I know that sounds like double talk, but here are his words to clarify. Luke 24:44 He said to them, “This is what I told...
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    Has the law been put aside? If so, when?

    In a word, no. No, I do not think "a Christ follower has to keep the Law of Moses to be saved or maintain salvation". (to borrow your words) But we might need to define what you mean when you say "the Law of Moses ". When I write about "the law", this is what I mean to say, how I define...
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    Has the law been put aside? If so, when?

    As I understand it, the term "spirit of the law" is not a biblical term. It is in common usage and has meaning, but not found in the Bible. When I do a search for the exact phrase I get zero results. So, if it isn't biblical, maybe what people typically say about it isn't biblical either. It...
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    Has the law been put aside? If so, when?

    Here is what you said originally that seemed off to me. - "The Law was fulfilled at the Death of Christ on the cross." - "The Law is not set aside until each individual person is given rest by coming to Christ." I typically hear of the law being set aside on the cross. This scripture is used...
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    Has the law been put aside? If so, when?

    I didn't say I'm not a teacher. I said I'm not YOUR teacher.