You misunderstand, angel, I don't offer the parable as proof of anything except as proof of which of the two meanings Jesus understood for the word "fire". The problem is, that although Jesus states 5 times that there is fire in hell, someone could argue that Jesus meant the fire symbolically, based on the Greek word. My point is that in this parable, Jesus used the word flame. That proves that in His mind, the fire of hell had flame, and thus is not symbolic. I'm simply working around the Greek word having two meanings, since the topic of this thread is whether that fire is symbolical or not.
The statement that the rich man is different from Jesus' resurrected body,, proves that Jesus understood that those who die in sin will be able to feel such flame and will suffer from it. This is to support my interpretation of I Cor. 15:52 in above posts "all are raised, we are changed" as being two separate statements, not one, as some are objecting.
The parable supports the interpretation of words. The other Scriptures prove; this helps us interpret the words of those.