Can We Really Exercise Free Will?

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Ah,
We are supposed to be willing slaves to Him now?
There is no such thing as a believer. The word is a mistranslation.
SERVANTS

Do you not know what the difference is between a slave and a servant.

huh

Or what a believer is?
 
We do it every single day multiple times a day. Every decision we make is a choice that we make. Because God knows in advance what the choice may be and what tge ultimate outcome is or ramifications are doesn't mean it's not free will .
 
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God did not elect only ethnic Hebrews under the Old Covenant. Election and the Covenant of Grace have always included a mixed multitude of elect individuals from both Jews and Gentiles across all eras, though the administration and outward scope of the covenant changed over time.

There is only one way of salvation by grace through faith in Christ from the fall of Adam onward. Old Testament believers outside of ethnic Israel—such as Rahab, Ruth, and Naaman—were saved by the same faith and included in the same spiritual family.

Jesus did not come to grant autonomous "free will" so that Gentiles could freely choose to follow Him. Instead, the Bible teaches that human wills are naturally bound to sin. Christ frees the Gentiles from this spiritual bondage through monergistic regeneration—meaning God sovereignly changes the heart and grants faith, rather than leaving salvation to human choice.


Fallen humans (both Jews and Gentiles) love sin and cannot choose spiritual good on their own. The unregenerate will is not neutral; it is enslaved to a sinful nature. Apart from God's prior action, no one naturally desires or decides to follow God.

Under the New Covenant, the dividing wall between Jew and Gentile is broken down, and Gentiles are fully included as co-heirs of the promise. Freedom in the New Covenant means being liberated from the guilt and mastery of sin, not gaining autonomous self-determination.


When God brings a Gentile into the New Covenant, the Holy Spirit overcomes their deadness and makes them willing to believe. God works in them "both to will and to work".
Rahab and Ruth married Israelites.

Naaman became a believer after miraculous healing. Eg set free from a skin disease. What was dead (the skin) became alive and healed. God didn't MAKE Naaman willing to believe, as he was ready to do that all on his own if God came to him. God through Elisha I think it was had to tell him to DO something - wash in the river 7 times. Remember he didn't want to. Only after he was healed did Naaman really believe.

I would ague that Christ's freedom isn't liberation from guilt or mastery of sin..that's just grace. The ability to say NO to sin and Yes to God and cultivate the fruits of the Holy Spirit is a gift. We just need to yield and that's the part that is US, its not ALL God otherwise, we just would be instant Christians already resurrected and living forever. Does not happen that way.

God can't MAKE me want to do something, but He can help me and comfort me when I ask Him and to give me strength to do the things He wants me to do.

But yea, sometimes its semantics but really you go by your own experience of being a Christian, being born again and following Him etc. He does give us freedom, which is autonomy. We can say Yes to Jesus and NO to sin. Believers make these choices every single day. Only you can make these choice, God can't make it for you - but He can give you clarity and guide you to the right choices.
 
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The thing that is predestined is actually God wanting His creation made in His image i.e us humans, to enjoy Him and the Kingdom of heaven. He will open the doors to those who believe. And whosever believes. i.e Any of us.

When we tell the gospel to people, we can show them the way, which is Jesus. If they don't already know.
 
Also remember Ruth made a CHOICE to follow God after going with Naomi - And God showed His kindness toward her through Naomi and Boaz

And of course Rahab had heard about God through others who talked about Him parting the Red Sea for the Israelites, who she let stay in her establishment as spies, she was otherwise a madam. She made the choice to believe too after hearing about the miracle and God's power (and also His love for his people, willing to rescue them)
 
Ruth could have gone back to her own country like her sister Orpah.

Rahab could have not hid the spies.

They both took risks, made choices. Because they could/understand see God at work. Through His love for His people.
 
No we got that sorted who wants to play the ACRONYM game?

You can choose to, or not. Up to you. It's in miscellaneous forum. I need some help with some acronyms
 
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Inquisitor, you are pulling a classic semantic stunt. You lift the historic, narrative summary of the cross from 1 Corinthians 15:1–6, and you pretend that because the acronym "TULIP" isn't explicitly spelled out in the text, the reality isn't true. Let’s do some strict, honest exegesis of Paul's words and expose how you completely empty the cross of its legal power.


You quote Paul stating the core of the Gospel: “that Christ died for our sins according to the Scriptures.”

Let's apply some strict legal realism to that statement. What does it actually mean for Christ to die "for our sins"?

In the Greek text, the word for "for" is hyper—which means in the room of, in the stead of, or as a literal legal substitute for. And who is the pronoun "our" restricting it to? Look at 1 Corinthians 1:2. Paul explicitly defines his audience: “Unto the church of God... called to be saints.”

Let's look at the unyielding legal timeline of this text:

If Jesus Christ stood on that cross 2,000 years ago as the literal legal Substitute (hyper) for the specific sins of His Church, then by His death, He must have actually paid their debt, canceled their indictment, and made a total end of their sins! (Daniel 9:24, Colossians 2:14).

Now, let’s look at your conditional theology. Your system claims that Christ died for the sins of every single individual human being on earth, yet millions of those exact same people burn in hell for eternity.

If that is true, then Christ's death did not actually pay for their sins! His substitutionary work failed. You are the one turning the Gospel into a "philosophical distortion"—a weak, impotent, provisional proposal where Christ tried to save everyone but couldn't finalize the legal transaction until man performed an act of faith.

You point to verse 2—“if you hold firmly”—trying to smuggle human conditions and free-will leverage back into salvation.

But why does a child of God hold firmly? Because they are a cooperating freewill agent? No! They hold firmly because they are the Master's wheat (Matthew 13), the Shepherd's sheep (John 10), whose faith was purchased by the blood of the covenant and sovereignly worked inside their souls by the Holy Spirit! (Hebrews 13:21). They don't believe to get born again; they believe and hold firmly because they have been born of God (1 John 5:1).

TULIP is not an invention or a distortion; it is simply the precise, scriptural anatomy of the very cross Paul is preaching:
  • Total Depravity is why Christ had to die for dead corpses.
  • Unconditional Election is the source of the "our" in the text.
  • Limited Atonement is the absolute legal efficacy of His substitute death.
  • Irresistible Grace is the sovereign quickening of the Spirit based on His resurrection.
  • Perseverance is the reason they stand and cannot be lost.


When I say TULIP is the Gospel, I am defending the fact that the cross actually worked/saved. You want a generic, flat gospel that offers a failed cross to everyone and leaves the final hinge up to human pride. Stop sentimentalizing 1 Corinthians 15, accept the strict substitutionary grammar of the Holy Spirit, and bow to a Savior who actually finished the transgression!


Your theology/philosophy is confused.

Christ sacrificed Himself according to the law strictly for the nation of Israel (Romans 9:1-5).

The Gentiles were grafted into the root (Christ) at a later date (Acts 10).

There are two groups identified in the letter to the Romans, that is, Israel and the Gentiles (Romans 9:25-26).

Paul is not explaining TULIP in Romans rather Paul is telling everyone why Israel failed to achieve righteousness.

Talking about the salvation of any individual when referring to the letter to the Romans, is erroneous.

You are misunderstanding the context of the letter to the Romans, therefore, your argument is in valid.

Let AI read the letter to the Romans and specify what the context is that Paul is discussing.

From the context alone​


Romans 7–11 repeatedly emphasizes:


  • Faith versus works (9:30–32; 10:3–10).
  • Salvation offered to "whosoever" believes (10:11–13).
  • Israel's stumbling through unbelief (9:32; 11:20).
  • The possibility of restoration through faith (11:23).
  • God's faithfulness to His promises concerning Israel (11:1–29).

Therefore, the surrounding context does not explicitly teach the later Calvinistic doctrine that God unconditionally predestines particular individuals to salvation and passes over the rest.


At the same time, Romans 9–11 certainly affirms God's sovereignty:


"Therefore hath he mercy on whom he will have mercy, and whom he will he hardeneth." (Romans 9:18)

"O man, who art thou that repliest against God?" (Romans 9:20)

So the context clearly teaches God's sovereign freedom, but it also repeatedly explains human exclusion in terms of unbelief and inclusion in terms of faith.


From Romans 7–11 alone, Paul appears to be defending God's faithfulness to His promises and explaining the place of Israel and the Gentiles in God's redemptive plan, while consistently identifying faith and unbelief as the immediate reasons people stand or fall.
 
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Wot.

Are you CCers even talking about

While we were yet sinners, God loved us.

Jesus sets the captives free. When were we captive? When we were a slave to sin (had no free will) How does Jesus set us free? By His grace.

Slaves are not free, they are bound to their boss.

Most of the OT and NT is referring to the elect i.e the Chosen ones - the Hebrews.God chose them out of all the other peoples of the world to be his special holy nation. They didn't have a choice in the matter, even if they didn't want to follow Him, didn't want to believe, he made a covenant that became their birthright.

Then Jesus comes along and sets people free...so they can follow Him. This is why there's a NEW covenant. And those of us who weren't 'The chosen' ie. Gentiles can also be set from sin to follow Him (whoseover believeth) so really it is free will on behalf of Jesus who does the act of setting the captives free.

When you were a slave to sin, did you really have a choice? No. After Jesus freed you did you realise you now had a choice to follow him or not? I think most people found they do. Also when Jesus gives us the gift of the Holy Spirit, He emboldens or empowers us to make good choices. We can then exercise our freedom!!

So that is our free will. Jesus give that to believers, by his Grace. He is able to divinely change our hearts and draw us closer to God.



Sorry if this sounds like mansplaining, but I am also trying to explain it to myself, because I *know* I have been set free - Praise the Lord!
To deny the free will requirement to ENTER INTO the New Covenant with fully informed consent is to proffer heresy.

1Co 15:1 - Moreover, brethren, I declare unto you the gospel which I preached unto you, which also ye have received G3880, and wherein ye stand;

1Co 15:3 - For I delivered unto you first of all that which I also received, G3880 how that Christ died for our sins according to the scriptures;



to take

to take with the hand, lay hold of, any person or thing in order to use it

to take up a thing to be carried

to take upon one's self

to take in order to carry away

without the notion of violence, i,e to remove, take away

to take what is one's own, to take to one's self, to make one's own

to claim, procure, for one's self

to associate with one's self as companion, attendant

of that which when taken is not let go, to seize, to lay hold of, apprehend

to take by craft (our catch, used of hunters, fisherman, etc.), to circumvent one by fraud

to take to one's self, lay hold upon, take possession of, i.e. to appropriate to one's self

catch at, reach after, strive to obtain

to take a thing due, to collect, gather (tribute)

to take

to admit, receive

to receive what is offered

not to refuse or reject

to receive a person, give him access to one's self,

to regard any one's power, rank, external circumstances, and on that account to do some injustice or neglect something

to take, to choose, select

to take beginning, to prove anything, to make a trial of, to experience

to receive (what is given), to gain, get, obtain, to get back
 
Inquisitor, you are pulling a classic semantic stunt. You lift the historic, narrative summary of the cross from 1 Corinthians 15:1–6, and you pretend that because the acronym "TULIP" isn't explicitly spelled out in the text, the reality isn't true. Let’s do some strict, honest exegesis of Paul's words and expose how you completely empty the cross of its legal power.


You quote Paul stating the core of the Gospel: “that Christ died for our sins according to the Scriptures.”

Let's apply some strict legal realism to that statement. What does it actually mean for Christ to die "for our sins"?

In the Greek text, the word for "for" is hyper—which means in the room of, in the stead of, or as a literal legal substitute for. And who is the pronoun "our" restricting it to? Look at 1 Corinthians 1:2. Paul explicitly defines his audience: “Unto the church of God... called to be saints.”

Let's look at the unyielding legal timeline of this text:

If Jesus Christ stood on that cross 2,000 years ago as the literal legal Substitute (hyper) for the specific sins of His Church, then by His death, He must have actually paid their debt, canceled their indictment, and made a total end of their sins! (Daniel 9:24, Colossians 2:14).

Now, let’s look at your conditional theology. Your system claims that Christ died for the sins of every single individual human being on earth, yet millions of those exact same people burn in hell for eternity.

If that is true, then Christ's death did not actually pay for their sins! His substitutionary work failed. You are the one turning the Gospel into a "philosophical distortion"—a weak, impotent, provisional proposal where Christ tried to save everyone but couldn't finalize the legal transaction until man performed an act of faith.

You point to verse 2—“if you hold firmly”—trying to smuggle human conditions and free-will leverage back into salvation.

But why does a child of God hold firmly? Because they are a cooperating freewill agent? No! They hold firmly because they are the Master's wheat (Matthew 13), the Shepherd's sheep (John 10), whose faith was purchased by the blood of the covenant and sovereignly worked inside their souls by the Holy Spirit! (Hebrews 13:21). They don't believe to get born again; they believe and hold firmly because they have been born of God (1 John 5:1).

TULIP is not an invention or a distortion; it is simply the precise, scriptural anatomy of the very cross Paul is preaching:
  • Total Depravity is why Christ had to die for dead corpses.
  • Unconditional Election is the source of the "our" in the text.
  • Limited Atonement is the absolute legal efficacy of His substitute death.
  • Irresistible Grace is the sovereign quickening of the Spirit based on His resurrection.
  • Perseverance is the reason they stand and cannot be lost.


When I say TULIP is the Gospel, I am defending the fact that the cross actually worked/saved. You want a generic, flat gospel that offers a failed cross to everyone and leaves the final hinge up to human pride. Stop sentimentalizing 1 Corinthians 15, accept the strict substitutionary grammar of the Holy Spirit, and bow to a Savior who actually finished the transgression!


TULIP is a faulty dogmatic rule set that needs to be jettisoned ASAP.
 
Your theology/philosophy is confused.

Christ sacrificed Himself according to the law strictly for the nation of Israel (Romans 9:1-5).

The Gentiles were grafted into the root (Christ) at a later date (Acts 10).

There are two groups identified in the letter to the Romans, that is, Israel and the Gentiles (Romans 9:25-26).

Paul is not explaining TULIP in Romans rather Paul is telling everyone why Israel failed to achieve righteousness.

Talking about the salvation of any individual when referring to the letter to the Romans, is erroneous.

You are misunderstanding the context of the letter to the Romans, therefore, your argument is in valid.

Let AI read the letter to the Romans and specify what the context is that Paul is discussing.

From the context alone​


Romans 7–11 repeatedly emphasizes:


  • Faith versus works (9:30–32; 10:3–10).
  • Salvation offered to "whosoever" believes (10:11–13).
  • Israel's stumbling through unbelief (9:32; 11:20).
  • The possibility of restoration through faith (11:23).
  • God's faithfulness to His promises concerning Israel (11:1–29).

Therefore, the surrounding context does not explicitly teach the later Calvinistic doctrine that God unconditionally predestines particular individuals to salvation and passes over the rest.


At the same time, Romans 9–11 certainly affirms God's sovereignty:






So the context clearly teaches God's sovereign freedom, but it also repeatedly explains human exclusion in terms of unbelief and inclusion in terms of faith.


From Romans 7–11 alone, Paul appears to be defending God's faithfulness to His promises and explaining the place of Israel and the Gentiles in God's redemptive plan, while consistently identifying faith and unbelief as the immediate reasons people stand or fall.
Inquisitor, you have constructed a beautiful corporate smoke screen, but it completely suffocates the moment we expose it to the text. You want to claim that Romans 9–11 is strictly about corporate nations and that dealing with individual salvation is "erroneous." Let’s do some strict, honest exegesis of Paul's words and expose your fatal structural errors.

1. The Total Failure of Your "Corporate Only" Argument

You claim that Paul is not talking about individuals. If that is true, then Paul completely botched his own illustrations.

Look at Romans 9:11–13. Paul does not point to two massive historical empires; he points directly to two individual infants inside a single womb:

“For the children being not yet born, neither having done any good or evil, that the purpose of God according to election might stand, not of works, but of him that calleth... Jacob have I loved, but Esau have I hated.”
Let's apply some basic logic to your corporate theory: A corporate nation is built on centuries of human actions, wars, and choices. But Paul purposefully strips away all actions and looks at two specific individuals before they can even take a breath. Why? To prove that God's purpose in election targets specific individuals unconditionally, completely bypassing their human will!

2. You Completely Misread the Definition of "Israel"

You argue that Christ sacrificed Himself strictly for the physical nation of Israel, and Gentiles were just a late addition. You have completely missed the core thesis of Romans 9.


In Romans 9:6–8, Paul lays down an unyielding boundary: “For they are not all Israel, which are of Israel: Neither, because they are the seed of Abraham, are they all children... That is, They which are the children of the flesh, these are NOT the children of God: but the children of the promise are counted for the seed.”

Paul completely shatters your physical, national framework! He states that being a physical descendant of Abraham means absolutely nothing in terms of eternal covenant standing. Christ did not die for a political passport; He died for the children of promise—the "godly seed" (Malachi 2:15) chosen sovereignly out of both Jews and Gentiles (Romans 9:24).

3. The Unyielding Verdict of Romans 11:7

You claim that the context teaches "human exclusion in terms of unbelief and inclusion in terms of faith." You have the cause and effect completely backward. Let's look at the absolute structural checkmate in Romans 11:7:

“What then? Israel hath not obtained that which he seeketh for; but the election hath obtained it, and the rest were blinded.”
Look at the text! Paul splits the people into two absolute, fixed categories:
  1. The Election: They obtained it. Why? Because they were the chosen wheat sown by the Son of Man (Matthew 13).
  2. The Rest: They were blinded. Who blinded them? Romans 11:8 tells you: “God hath given them the spirit of slumber, eyes that they should not see.”
Your system requires that their personal unbelief is what caused God to exclude them. But Romans 11 explicitly states that God’s judicial blinding is what caused their ongoing unbelief! They are the "tares" and the "serpent's seed" who were never given spiritual eyes to see the Kingdom. Their unbelief is not the cause of their damnation; it is the visible manifestation that they are condemned already (John 3:18) under a Law whose debt-bill was never blotted out for them.

You can invoke an AI summary all day long to try and flatten Paul's heavy theology into a generic, free-will checklist. But you cannot escape the grammar of the Holy Spirit. God does not deal in vague corporate offers. He is the Potter who takes the exact same physical posterity of Adam and sovereignly makes “one vessel unto honour, and another unto dishonour” (Romans 9:21). Stop hiding behind national labels to save your human pride, and bow to the discriminating King who binds and blinds according to His own sovereign will!


 
TULIP is a faulty dogmatic rule set that needs to be jettisoned ASAP.
cv5, you throw out a one-sentence emotional tantrum because you are textually bankrupted by the unyielding reality of the cross. Demanding that a scriptural truth be "jettisoned ASAP" is not a rebuttal; it is an open admission that you cannot handle the text of Scripture.

Notice what you completely dodged:
  1. You didn't touch the Greek grammar of hyper (literal, vicarious legal substitution).
  2. You didn't answer how a Savior can die "for" someone's sins, yet those same sins are still legally punished in hell without making God an unjust judge.
  3. You didn't address the absolute legal finality of Christ making an end of sins (Daniel 9:24) and blotting out the debt-bill (Colossians 2:14).
You call TULIP a "faulty dogmatic rule set" because you hate what it stands for: the absolute efficacy of the blood of Jesus Christ.
TULIP simply forces you to stop hiding behind vague terms and answer a basic question: Did the cross actually save who Christ died for, or was it a powerless proposal that failed to secure a single soul until man decided to help?

If you think my exegesis is faulty, step up to the plate, open your Bible, and prove it from the text. Otherwise, your demand to "jettison" the sovereignty of God is just human pride crying out against a Savior who actually finished the work!



 
From Romans 7–11 alone, Paul appears to be defending God's faithfulness to His promises and explaining the place of Israel and the Gentiles in God's redemptive plan, while consistently identifying faith and unbelief as the immediate reasons people stand or fall.
Precious friend, in my simpleton pay grade, I believe I understand accountability, which I haven't seen
discussed yet. How is that even possible if the lost sinner has no "free" will, and needs to be co-erced
by God in order "to believe"?

Would not that make The Following UNtrue?:

"And with all deceivableness of unrighteousness in them that perish; because they received not​
The Love of The Truth, that they might be saved. And for this cause God shall send them strong​
delusion, that they should believe a lie: That they all might be damned who believed not The​
Truth, but had pleasure in unrighteousness. " (2 Thessalonians 2:10-12 AV)​

What think ye?
-----------
And, precious friend(s), Please Be Very Richly Encouraged and Edified
In The Lord Jesus Christ and In His Precious Word Of Truth, Rightly
Divided:


The Bible: The BIG Picture

Amen.
 
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Rahab and Ruth married Israelites.

Naaman became a believer after miraculous healing. Eg set free from a skin disease. What was dead (the skin) became alive and healed. God didn't MAKE Naaman willing to believe, as he was ready to do that all on his own if God came to him. God through Elisha I think it was had to tell him to DO something - wash in the river 7 times. Remember he didn't want to. Only after he was healed did Naaman really believe.

I would ague that Christ's freedom isn't liberation from guilt or mastery of sin..that's just grace. The ability to say NO to sin and Yes to God and cultivate the fruits of the Holy Spirit is a gift. We just need to yield and that's the part that is US, its not ALL God otherwise, we just would be instant Christians already resurrected and living forever. Does not happen that way.

God can't MAKE me want to do something, but He can help me and comfort me when I ask Him and to give me strength to do the things He wants me to do.

But yea, sometimes its semantics but really you go by your own experience of being a Christian, being born again and following Him etc. He does give us freedom, which is autonomy. We can say Yes to Jesus and NO to sin. Believers make these choices every single day. Only you can make these choice, God can't make it for you - but He can give you clarity and guide you to the right choices.
God’s decree of election from eternity past includes a remnant of people from every tribe, tongue, and nation, and that salvation has always been by grace through faith looking forward to Christ.

The Covenant of Grace is fundamentally the same in both the Old and New Testaments. People are not saved by keeping the law of Moses, but by faith in the coming Redeemer.

Just as New Testament believers look back at the finished cross, Old Testament believers—including elect Gentiles—looked forward in faith to the promised seed of the woman and the messianic sacrifices.
God’s election is never based on ethnic identity or human merit. Because salvation belongs to the Lord, His sovereign choice bypassed many physical Israelites (the non-elect) and captured individual outsiders.

God commands everyone to repent and believe, and genuinely offers the gospel to all who hear it, but He only works effectually to save those He chose before creation (the elect). Salvation is not a conditional offer that becomes active because a person first yields; rather, a person yields because God first changed their heart.

Yes, born again believers are already saved and we do possess eternal life right now. This is a definitive, present-tense reality rooted in God's sovereign grace, not a future possibility waiting to be earned. God changes the heart of a sinner first. This gives them spiritual life before they can even believe. Eternal life is a current gift. Believers do not just get it when they die.

Being joined to Christ means His life is now the believer's life. True believers will never lose this salvation. God keeps them safe until the end. Salvation is fully possessed now in spirit, though its final physical glory comes later. Those who belong to Christ face no judgment for sin at any time.

All of mankind from Adam onwards, is born into slavery to sin and Satan. Nobody is free to chose anything.







 
God’s decree of election from eternity past includes a remnant of people from every tribe, tongue, and nation, and that salvation has always been by grace through faith looking forward to Christ.

Decree of election simply means that God in His omniscience already knows who will believe before they were born.
He then CHOOSES for what time in history they are to be born, as to predetermine what kind of life they are to live on
earth (under the Law, or under Grace). And how they are to spend their eternity (on the new earth, or in Heaven).

........