Documentary—7 Pretrib Problems and the Prewrath Rapture

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TheDivineWatermark

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My point still stands, if the marriage of the Lamb occurs upon His return to the earth pre-trib then [...]
Can you see how this reads in such a way that makes zero real sense?? = )





[note to readers: Jesus does not "RETURN" to the earth PRE-Trib... He "RETURNS" to the earth AFTER the Trib, and THAT is when "the wedding FEAST / SUPPER" commences, aka the EARTHLY MK age (NOT "the MARRIAGE" itself, which will have ALREADY taken place UP IN Heaven PRIOR TO His "RETURN" to the earth at Rev19--see again "G347"-the MEAL per the wording in Lk12:36-37,38 - "when he will RETURN FROM the wedding"... THEN the meal [G347]!)]
 
Mar 4, 2020
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Can you see how this reads in such a way that makes zero real sense?? = )





[note to readers: Jesus does not "RETURN" to the earth PRE-Trib... He "RETURNS" to the earth AFTER the Trib, and THAT is when "the wedding FEAST / SUPPER" commences, aka the EARTHLY MK age (NOT "the MARRIAGE" itself, which will have ALREADY taken place UP IN Heaven PRIOR TO His "RETURN" to the earth at Rev19--see again "G347"-the MEAL per the wording in Lk12:36-37,38 - "when he will RETURN FROM the wedding"... THEN the meal [G347]!)]
It sounds like you're agreeing the wedding/supper is post-trib. If that's the case then that's great progress for you. Welcome to the truth team.
 

TheDivineWatermark

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^ No.

"The MARRIAGE" itself (pertaining to the "Bride / Wife [SINGULAR]," v.7) is distinct from "the wedding FEAST / SUPPER" (pertaining to the INVITED "GUESTS [PLURAL]," v.9, who [though having come to faith by the end of the Trib yrs] being themselves "saints," are NOT who He is coming to the earth at that point "TO MARRY")

--"the GUESTS [PLURAL]" ["having been invited to the wedding FEAST/SUPPER" [v.9; ("the wedding FEAST/SUPPER"=the EARTHLY MK age)] "INVITED" all throughout the Trib years [and who will NEVER "lift off" the earth, btw], by that point in the chronology (Rev19)] are not "the BRIDE/WIFE [SINGULAR]," see... [who will be "ALREADY-WED" (having taken place UP IN Heaven) by that point in the chronology (Rev19 point in time)])

--you are right in saying that ALL saints of ALL time periods will be present and accounted for, to ENJOY the MK age ("the wedding FEAST/SUPPER" on the earth);
but you are not correct in saying that ALL saints of ALL time periods are who make up "the Bride / Wife [SINGULAR]"... no, some "saints" (having come to faith in/during/within a different time-period) will be "the GUESTS [PLURAL]" and the "BRIDESMAIDS / VIRGINS [PLURAL]" (the 5 that will actually ENTER the MK age) and "the SERVANTS [PLURAL]" of the particular time-period of the [7] Trib yrs (etc)... and like how John the Baptist is called "FRIEND of the Bridegroom" (so he's not considered "the Bride / Wife" either, see...);
I'm referring to [by] the point in the chronology of Rev19 (His Second Coming to the earth, FOR the promised and prophesied EARTHLY Millennial Kingdom, aka "the wedding FEAST / SUPPER," aka "the kingdom OF THE heavenS" [i.e. not "UP IN Heaven"], aka "the age [SINGULAR] to come"... [no one is "lifting off" the earth at that point in the chronology, rather He is RETURNING [then] to the earth where they [those particular "saints" ("having been INVITED" and having come to faith FOLLOWING "our Rapture")] will still be located! [in the various passages I've been referring to, in the above paragraph])

--Rev19:7 is distinct from Rev19:9, iow
 

TheDivineWatermark

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So NO... if you read carefully, what I've put is NOT what you are suggesting I've put. = D



[a brief blurb of it: "the BRIDE / WIFE [SINGULAR]" is NOT "the GUESTS [PLURAL]" (tho both groups/entities are "SAVED / SAINTS / BELIEVERS")]
 
Mar 4, 2020
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^ No.

"The MARRIAGE" itself (pertaining to the "Bride / Wife [SINGULAR]," v.7) is distinct from "the wedding FEAST / SUPPER" (pertaining to the INVITED "GUESTS [PLURAL]," v.9, who [though having come to faith by the end of the Trib yrs] being themselves "saints," are NOT who He is coming to the earth at that point "TO MARRY")

--"the GUESTS [PLURAL]" ["having been invited to the wedding FEAST/SUPPER" [v.9; ("the wedding FEAST/SUPPER"=the EARTHLY MK age)] "INVITED" all throughout the Trib years [and who will NEVER "lift off" the earth, btw], by that point in the chronology (Rev19)] are not "the BRIDE/WIFE [SINGULAR]," see... [who will be "ALREADY-WED" (having taken place UP IN Heaven) by that point in the chronology (Rev19 point in time)])

--you are right in saying that ALL saints of ALL time periods will be present and accounted for, to ENJOY the MK age ("the wedding FEAST/SUPPER" on the earth);
but you are not correct in saying that ALL saints of ALL time periods are who make up "the Bride / Wife [SINGULAR]"... no, some "saints" (having come to faith in/during/within a different time-period) will be "the GUESTS [PLURAL]" and the "BRIDESMAIDS / VIRGINS [PLURAL]" (the 5 that will actually ENTER the MK age) and "the SERVANTS [PLURAL]" of the particular time-period of the [7] Trib yrs (etc)... and like how John the Baptist is called "FRIEND of the Bridegroom" (so he's not considered "the Bride / Wife" either, see...);
I'm referring to [by] the point in the chronology of Rev19 (His Second Coming to the earth, FOR the promised and prophesied EARTHLY Millennial Kingdom, aka "the wedding FEAST / SUPPER," aka "the kingdom OF THE heavenS" [i.e. not "UP IN Heaven"], aka "the age [SINGULAR] to come"... [no one is "lifting off" the earth at that point in the chronology, rather He is RETURNING [then] to the earth where they [those particular "saints" ("having been INVITED" and having come to faith FOLLOWING "our Rapture")] will still be located! [in the various passages I've been referring to, in the above paragraph])

--Rev19:7 is distinct from Rev19:9, iow
TDW, I love you but what you're saying is so convoluted that it's difficult to follow. I know that's how you prefer to write your messages, but it's not very plain or straightforward enough to give a concise and cohesive response to.

For example, I don't want to go into semantics or decipher what the various emphasises you're using mean. All of the underlined/italicized/bolded texts with symbols probably mean something to you, I'm sure, but to the reader it's not straightforward.

Can we just examine the plain text and use our own commentary to sort it out? Thanks.
 

TheDivineWatermark

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Can we just examine the plain text and use our own commentary to sort it out? Thanks.
Okay, so...where you had written...
It sounds like you're agreeing the wedding/supper is post-trib.
... I could not tell for sure what you meant by the bold ^ ...



Are you:

--EQUATING "the MARRIAGE/WEDDING" WITH "the wedding FEAST/SUPPER" (as though they are ONE ITEM)... or

--saying that "the wedding AND the supper [is post-trib]" (meaning, these TWO DISTINCT items occur at the same moment or time-slot--you're asking me if I view it this way)




___________


What I am saying, for starters... (instead of those options ^ )... is that "the MARRIAGE" is NOT "the wedding FEAST / SUPPER"...
and along with that distinction (and corresponding to it)... "the BRIDE / WIFE [SINGULAR]" is NOT "the GUESTS [PLURAL]" (tho both entities [for lack of a better term atm] are "saints / saved / believers" [each "group" having come to faith within/during DIFFERENT "time-periods"]--IOW, the "unsaved / lost / non-believers" fall into neither of these categories, so I'm not referring to those, here, to be clear).

Are you trackin' with me so far? = )
 

Ahwatukee

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That last one "fits" what I'm saying ^ .

And this is what I already explained in my Post #170




You've added the idea "IN FAITH" [/"FROM FAITH"] whereas this is not being in reference in this 2Th2:3 context.
I have not added faith, it is the meaning of the word. The only other example of the use of this word is found in Acts 21:21, which is regarding the forsaking of the law of Moses. Therefore, here in 2 Thess.2 it is referring to a leaving from one's stand in faith. In addition, we have the other translated words of defection and revolt. These also support the idea of leaving one's stand of faith. And did you pay attention to this 'departure (implying desertion)? That is the only way that the word 'departure' can be used, i.e. implying desertion from one's previous stand in faith.

If you don't agree with this, you are certainly free to do so. As for me, I have studied this for many years and go the answer to it. Therefore, I am not going to abandon that meaning. I began contending for this word and scripture because people began to use 'departure' up into the wild blue yonder. If you are saying that apostasia/departure can be used for this meaning, then I wholeheartedly disagree. We must consider the other descriptive words and take note of the how it is used in Acts 21:21

What do you actually think that the the word anastasia/departed in 2 Thess.2. is referring to?
 

TheDivineWatermark

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Sry... I ran out of EDIT time... would have like to have cleaned up that post, a bit... Hope it makes sense
 

TheDivineWatermark

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These also support the idea of leaving one's stand of faith. And did you pay attention to this 'departure (implying desertion)? That is the only way that the word 'departure' can be used
"the ONLY way..."

No. Even "HELPS Word-studies" AND "Strong's" both supplied more than just THAT (what you have in red ^ ).




_____________


P.S. to my last post (above this one):

If you are referring to "he apostasia," I said I believe it is legit translated "THE Departure" (THE ONE *previously* mentioned in the text, i.e. the one IN VERSE 1--this is the [/a] FUNCTION of "the definite article" used here [but not used in Acts 21:21])
 

TheDivineWatermark

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^ ... and verse 1 says, "OUR 'gathering-together/episynagoges [noun]' UNTO HIM" (NOT "BEING gathered..." [VERB])
 

TheDivineWatermark

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[quoting from "Strong's"]

"G646 - apostasia - 'from feminine of the same as G647 [apostasion] ;

"G647 - apostasion - 'properly, something separative'"

-- Strong's

[end quoting; bold and underline mine]



____________

"OUR episynagoges UNTO HIM" (which will occur at the time of "our Rapture" event) will "SEPARATE" us from our current "standing" we have here on this earth.
 

TheDivineWatermark

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^ [continuing from previous post]

Hebrews 9:8-9a -

"8 By this the Holy Spirit was signifying that the way into the holy places has not yet been made manifest, the first tabernacle [the one "in the wilderness," per the "furnishings" of v.4!] still/yet having a standing [stasin / stasis], 9 which is a symbol [/a PARABLE] for the present time, ..."


--[words in blue ^ ] https://biblehub.com/greek/4714.htm
 

TheDivineWatermark

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^ In the OT times, God chose to work in and through "Israel" (to basically show the world God's address); in these NT times, God is working in and through "the Church which is His body" (up until "our Rapture / THE Departure" event, when WE will, at that point, not be ON THE EARTH, but in a sense "physically [literally and spatially and geographically] SEPARATED" from it, while the Tribulation years unfold upon the earth).



"[3]... THE departure FIRST..."
 

Nehemiah6

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For 1260 years the HRE/RCC "ruled" the earth and "had its way" with the saints - torturing and killing multi-millions of them in the most horrible ways. Was all of that part of the Wrath of God?
The issue is resolved by simply refusing to convert literal days into years. 1260 days = 42 months = 3 1/2 years = time, times, and half a time. These periods of time are found in both Daniel and Revelation.

It may have been Ellen G. White who came up with the idea of converting days into years and also labeling the papacy the Antichrist. But the Hebrew text does not allow for days to be converted to years, and the reign of the Antichrist is in the near future. That is definitely an expression of God's wrath, while allowing Satan to vent his wrath also (since he knows that his time to wreak havoc will be ended soon).

Therefore rejoice, ye heavens, and ye that dwell in them. Woe to the inhabiters of the earth and of the sea! for the devil is come down unto you, having great wrath, because he knoweth that he hath but a short time. (Rev 12:12)
 

awelight

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I didn't think it was a game. I was being 100% serious. I don't believe anything in the Bible unless it's plainly stated or described. I'll take it you don't have a verse that satisfies the question. Hence why pre-trib rapture is difficult to believe in.



There's a verse that plainly states Father, the Word, and the Holy Spirit are one. It's easy to use a minimum of two-three verses to prove this.

John 1:1;14
1In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.

14And the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us, (and we beheld his glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father,) full of grace and truth.

1 John 5:7
7For there are three that bear record in heaven, the Father, the Word, and the Holy Ghost: and these three are one.




There's a verse for that.

Colossians 2:9
9For in him dwelleth all the fulness of the Godhead bodily.
In my original reply, you actually agreed with the point I was making. You said:
"There's a verse that plainly states Father, the Word, and the Holy Spirit are one. It's easy to use a minimum of two-three verses to prove this."

My point exactly, that many things are gleamed from Scripture by putting one thing and another together. As to verses about a "taking up" of the Assembly that Christ is building:

John 14:2 In my Father's house are many mansions: if it were not so, I would have told you. I go to prepare a place for you.
John 14:3 And if I go and prepare a place for you, I will come again, and receive you unto myself; that where I am, there ye may be also.


The act of "receiving" the assembly, unto himself, cannot be equated with the Second Coming. In the Second Coming of Christ, the Lord is descending to the Earth and every eye shall see him. What logic is there, in an interpretation of this event, where those who are gathered unto the Lord is for the sole purpose of coming right back down? Also, in John 14:2&3, Christ's conversation was not public but was for the ears of His own, only.

Paul also, was not speaking publicly when he wrote the assembly of like minded believers:

1Th 4:15 For this we say unto you by the word of the Lord, that we that are alive, that are left unto the coming of the Lord, shall in no wise precede them that are fallen asleep.

This verse has created some confusion because many think it is talking about the Second Coming. However, the Greek word used here,
παρουσίαν, (Par-rah-see-an), is used in the sense of "being close" or "an appearance". This appearance is limited by this verse and the verses that follows:

1Th 4:16 For the Lord himself shall descend from heaven, with a shout, with the voice of the archangel, and with the trump of God: and the dead in Christ shall rise first;
1Th 4:17 then we that are alive, that are left, shall together with them be caught up in the clouds, to meet the Lord in the air: and so shall we ever be with the Lord.
1Th 4:18 Wherefore comfort one another with these words.


Only the dead "in Christ" and the ones who remain alive, are caught up. Only they will see this appearing. The whole world will see His Second Coming, not just these. This was given to comfort believers, who were concerned about those who had fallen asleep,

This promise was made to the Assembly in Philadelphia, by the Head of the Assembly, Jesus Christ - for the purpose of comfort:

Rev 3:10 Because thou didst keep the word of my patience, I also will keep thee from the hour of trial, that hour which is to come upon the whole world, to try them that dwell upon the earth.

The promise, is to keep the Universal Assembly, which Christ is building, form the coming "hour" of Tribulation or trial. This "hour" is defined here, as the one coming upon the whole world, to try those who still dwell upon the earth. This, by it's context, cannot be a local trial but must be global. Therefore, the Lord must have been speaking about the Great Tribulation.

Additionally, The judgement of the world in a Great Flood and the eight riding above the judgement in the safety of the Ark, is a type and foreshadow of the taking up of the Assembly.

In the end, it matters not what one believes is being taught. The Lord gave it to His Assembly for a blessing but if that blessing is missed, by faulty interpretation, the will of the Lord will take place regardless. If one believes in a pre-trib. rapture, they have possession of the entire blessing. If one believes in a mid-trib. rapture, they miss half of the blessing. And if one believes in a post-trib. rapture or non at all, they miss all of the blessing. Either wat, may the will of the Lord be accomplished.














Rom_11:25 For I would not, brethren, have you ignorant of this mystery, lest ye be wise in your own conceits, that a hardening in part hath befallen Israel, until the fulness of the Gentiles be come in;
 

GaryA

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The issue is resolved by simply refusing to convert literal days into years. 1260 days = 42 months = 3 1/2 years = time, times, and half a time. These periods of time are found in both Daniel and Revelation.

It may have been Ellen G. White who came up with the idea of converting days into years and also labeling the papacy the Antichrist. But the Hebrew text does not allow for days to be converted to years, and the reign of the Antichrist is in the near future. That is definitely an expression of God's wrath, while allowing Satan to vent his wrath also (since he knows that his time to wreak havoc will be ended soon).

Therefore rejoice, ye heavens, and ye that dwell in them. Woe to the inhabiters of the earth and of the sea! for the devil is come down unto you, having great wrath, because he knoweth that he hath but a short time. (Rev 12:12)
You are missing the point entirely.

Neither example - yours or mine - is any part of the 'Wrath of God'.

Both are examples of the wrath of Satan.

Any 'trouble'/'tribulation' that is "dished out" by Satan is the wrath of Satan and not the 'Wrath of God'.

Any 'trouble'/'tribulation' that is "dished out" by 'Antichrist' is the wrath of 'Antichrist' and not the 'Wrath of God'.

The Seals represent 'Judgement', but are not part of the 'Wrath of God'.

The Trumpet events represent 'Judgement', but are not part of the 'Wrath of God'.

The Vials represent 'Judgment' - and are the 'Wrath of God'.

There is a difference between 'Judgment' and the 'Wrath of God'.

The 'Wrath of God' is part of [the] 'Judgment' [of God]; however, all-things 'Judgment' are not part of the 'Wrath of God'.

The 'Wrath of God' is 'holy' ("set apart") unto itself.

Revelation is a book of 'Judgment'.

The scroll (with 7 seals) is about 'Judgment'.

The Seals are about 'Judgment'.

The Trumpet events are about 'Judgment'.

The Vials are about 'Judgment'.

But...

Only the Vials are about the 'Wrath of God'.

Until a person understands this and applies it to scripture properly, they will be unable to align the events of Revelation properly.

The "opening" of the first 3-5 Seals have already occurred - over the past ~2000 years - and are now part of history. (Except that they are 'continuing'.)

They are not part of the 'Wrath of God'.

The Trumpet events - which the Two Witnesses cause to occur - are future and 'post-trib'.

They are not part of the 'Wrath of God'.

All of these occur before the resurrection and rapture at the Second Coming of Christ.

THEN - at/after Christ returns - the Wrath of God is "dished out" by Christ Himself upon the wicked world. (The Vials.)

Only the Wrath of God is the 'Wrath of God'.
 
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In my original reply, you actually agreed with the point I was making. You said:
"There's a verse that plainly states Father, the Word, and the Holy Spirit are one. It's easy to use a minimum of two-three verses to prove this."

My point exactly, that many things are gleamed from Scripture by putting one thing and another together. As to verses about a "taking up" of the Assembly that Christ is building:

John 14:2 In my Father's house are many mansions: if it were not so, I would have told you. I go to prepare a place for you.
John 14:3 And if I go and prepare a place for you, I will come again, and receive you unto myself; that where I am, there ye may be also.


The act of "receiving" the assembly, unto himself, cannot be equated with the Second Coming. In the Second Coming of Christ, the Lord is descending to the Earth and every eye shall see him. What logic is there, in an interpretation of this event, where those who are gathered unto the Lord is for the sole purpose of coming right back down? Also, in John 14:2&3, Christ's conversation was not public but was for the ears of His own, only.

Paul also, was not speaking publicly when he wrote the assembly of like minded believers:

1Th 4:15 For this we say unto you by the word of the Lord, that we that are alive, that are left unto the coming of the Lord, shall in no wise precede them that are fallen asleep.

This verse has created some confusion because many think it is talking about the Second Coming. However, the Greek word used here,
παρουσίαν, (Par-rah-see-an), is used in the sense of "being close" or "an appearance". This appearance is limited by this verse and the verses that follows:

1Th 4:16 For the Lord himself shall descend from heaven, with a shout, with the voice of the archangel, and with the trump of God: and the dead in Christ shall rise first;
1Th 4:17 then we that are alive, that are left, shall together with them be caught up in the clouds, to meet the Lord in the air: and so shall we ever be with the Lord.
1Th 4:18 Wherefore comfort one another with these words.


Only the dead "in Christ" and the ones who remain alive, are caught up. Only they will see this appearing. The whole world will see His Second Coming, not just these. This was given to comfort believers, who were concerned about those who had fallen asleep,

This promise was made to the Assembly in Philadelphia, by the Head of the Assembly, Jesus Christ - for the purpose of comfort:

Rev 3:10 Because thou didst keep the word of my patience, I also will keep thee from the hour of trial, that hour which is to come upon the whole world, to try them that dwell upon the earth.

The promise, is to keep the Universal Assembly, which Christ is building, form the coming "hour" of Tribulation or trial. This "hour" is defined here, as the one coming upon the whole world, to try those who still dwell upon the earth. This, by it's context, cannot be a local trial but must be global. Therefore, the Lord must have been speaking about the Great Tribulation.

Additionally, The judgement of the world in a Great Flood and the eight riding above the judgement in the safety of the Ark, is a type and foreshadow of the taking up of the Assembly.

In the end, it matters not what one believes is being taught. The Lord gave it to His Assembly for a blessing but if that blessing is missed, by faulty interpretation, the will of the Lord will take place regardless. If one believes in a pre-trib. rapture, they have possession of the entire blessing. If one believes in a mid-trib. rapture, they miss half of the blessing. And if one believes in a post-trib. rapture or non at all, they miss all of the blessing. Either wat, may the will of the Lord be accomplished.














Rom_11:25 For I would not, brethren, have you ignorant of this mystery, lest ye be wise in your own conceits, that a hardening in part hath befallen Israel, until the fulness of the Gentiles be come in;
So no verses that teach a pre-tribulation rapture, then. You're separating the second coming of Christ from the rapture where no clear distinction is made. This is just your interpretation.

An interpretation is a particular adaptation or version of a work, method, style or a teaching technique that combines factual with explanatory information.

Furthermore, you excluded a key verse where Jesus taught that His coming and the gathering of His elect is post-trib. "All the tribes of the earth shall mourn."

Matthew 24:29-31
29Immediately after the tribulation of those days shall the sun be darkened, and the moon shall not give her light, and the stars shall fall from heaven, and the powers of the heavens shall be shaken: 30And then shall appear the sign of the Son of man in heaven: and then shall all the tribes of the earth mourn, and they shall see the Son of man coming in the clouds of heaven with power and great glory. 31And he shall send his angels with a great sound of a trumpet, and they shall gather together his elect from the four winds, from one end of heaven to the other.

Don't say that the elect are not Christ's church because they are:

Romans 11:7
7What then? Israel hath not obtained that which he seeketh for; but the election hath obtained it, and the rest were blinded

1 Thessalonians 1:4
4Knowing, brethren beloved, your election of God.

Colossians 3:12
12Put on therefore, as the elect of God, holy and beloved, bowels of mercies, kindness, humbleness of mind, meekness, longsuffering;
 

GaryA

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The scroll (with 7 seals) is about 'Judgment'.
I actually meant to say:

The book with 7 seals is about 'Judgment'.

(I was thinking about the illustration in the video at the time.)
 

awelight

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So no verses that teach a pre-tribulation rapture, then. You're separating the second coming of Christ from the rapture where no clear distinction is made. This is just your interpretation.

An interpretation is a particular adaptation or version of a work, method, style or a teaching technique that combines factual with explanatory information.

Furthermore, you excluded a key verse where Jesus taught that His coming and the gathering of His elect is post-trib. "All the tribes of the earth shall mourn."

Matthew 24:29-31
29Immediately after the tribulation of those days shall the sun be darkened, and the moon shall not give her light, and the stars shall fall from heaven, and the powers of the heavens shall be shaken: 30And then shall appear the sign of the Son of man in heaven: and then shall all the tribes of the earth mourn, and they shall see the Son of man coming in the clouds of heaven with power and great glory. 31And he shall send his angels with a great sound of a trumpet, and they shall gather together his elect from the four winds, from one end of heaven to the other.

Don't say that the elect are not Christ's church because they are:

Romans 11:7
7What then? Israel hath not obtained that which he seeketh for; but the election hath obtained it, and the rest were blinded

1 Thessalonians 1:4
4Knowing, brethren beloved, your election of God.

Colossians 3:12
12Put on therefore, as the elect of God, holy and beloved, bowels of mercies, kindness, humbleness of mind, meekness, longsuffering;
Improper distinction is being made between Israel and the Church. By the time Mat. 24:29-31, takes place - the assembly or church is a done deal. God is dealing with the Elect remnant of Israel. You probably believe that the Lord is finished with national Israel and the church is the New Israel. But as I said before:

In the end, it matters not what one believes is being taught. The Lord gave it to His Assembly for a blessing but if that blessing is missed, by faulty interpretation, the will of the Lord will take place regardless. If one believes in a pre-trib. rapture, they have possession of the entire blessing. If one believes in a mid-trib. rapture, they miss half of the blessing. And if one believes in a post-trib. rapture or non at all, they miss all of the blessing. Either wat, may the will of the Lord be accomplished.

See ya.