Galatians 3:10 vs. Psalm 119:1

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justbyfaith

Well-known member
Sep 16, 2021
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#81
Correct; Matthew 5-7 is indeed written to Christians, for Matthew intended his gospel to be a record of Jesus' life and ministry for the teaching and edification of Christians.

However, Jesus' words as recorded in Matthew 5-7 were not spoken to Christians, but to Jews. Matthew merely recorded them.
Jesus spoke to us in what he said in the Sermon on the Mount (Hebrews 1:1-2).
 

justbyfaith

Well-known member
Sep 16, 2021
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#82
It's sad that so many commentators hold to an idea that has no basis in Scripture.
That is only your opinion; for the concept does have a basis in scripture; otherwise it would be rejected by commentators who generally seek to make their comments in conjunction with the teaching of holy scripture.
 

Dino246

Senior Member
Jun 30, 2015
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#83
That is only your opinion; for the concept does have a basis in scripture; otherwise it would be rejected by commentators who generally seek to make their comments in conjunction with the teaching of holy scripture.
My “opinion” is shared by those who have studied the Bible directly rather than forming their position by reading commentaries.
 

justbyfaith

Well-known member
Sep 16, 2021
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#86
My “opinion” is shared by those who have studied the Bible directly rather than forming their position by reading commentaries.
My opinion is one that has been formulated by reading the Bible alone for the most part.

While it may be difficult to show clearly how there is a civil, moral, and ceremonial law by quoting a few verses, the whole of what we read in the Old Testament does point to that reality.
 

justbyfaith

Well-known member
Sep 16, 2021
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#87
You have more homework to do.
Says the person who never quotes or even references holy scripture.

I would say to you, Do your homework; so that you will have the holy scriptures in your mouth and in your heart (Romans 10:8).
 

Dino246

Senior Member
Jun 30, 2015
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#88
My opinion is one that has been formulated by reading the Bible alone for the most part.

While it may be difficult to show clearly how there is a civil, moral, and ceremonial law by quoting a few verses, the whole of what we read in the Old Testament does point to that reality.
I agree that the Law is moral AND civil AND ceremonial, but I know that there is no Scripture that either delineates divisions between them or defines any of them as such.

It is one Law. You break any ordinance thereof, and you have broken the Law. It's really very simple, and people just want to make it complicated.
 

Dino246

Senior Member
Jun 30, 2015
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#89
@Dino246 disagreeing with scripture yet again...
As usual, I'm not disagreeing with Scripture at all, but with your erroneous misinterpretation thereof. That you can't comprehend the distinction is a "you" problem.
 

Dino246

Senior Member
Jun 30, 2015
25,484
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#90
Says the person who never quotes or even references holy scripture.

I would say to you, Do your homework; so that you will have the holy scriptures in your mouth and in your heart (Romans 10:8).
I quote Scripture where appropriate to do so, as you can see in other threads. Where I can refute your assertions on the basis of logic or other means, I do so, and Scripture is either not needed or inappropriate to the task at hand.
 

Rondonmon

Senior Member
May 13, 2016
1,304
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#91
Gal: 3:10 "All who rely on observing the law are under a curse, for it is written: 'Cursed is everyone who does not continue to do everything written in the Book of the Law'"

Psalm 119:1 Blessed are those whose ways are blameless, who walk according to the law of the LORD.

Is God disagreeing with God?
Nope, the verse in Psalm 119:1 is TRUE.........The problem is no man can walk through this life without breaking God's Laws because of our sin nature, thus were are automatically condemned to death, thus that VERY Law has CURSED US unto death.

Jesus was not CURSED by these Laws he came to fulfill, because Jesus knew NO SIN.

Next question please !!
 

justbyfaith

Well-known member
Sep 16, 2021
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#92
I agree that the Law is moral AND civil AND ceremonial, but I know that there is no Scripture that either delineates divisions between them or defines any of them as such.

It is one Law. You break any ordinance thereof, and you have broken the Law. It's really very simple, and people just want to make it complicated.
There are aspects of the ceremonial law (which pertains to animal sacrifices) that have been fulfilled by the sacrifice of Christ on the Cross.

The aspects of the moral law are fulfilled in that,

1) Christ lived a perfect life and applies His life to our account; and,

2) Christ lives in us and through us so that we practically live lives that are pleasing to God according to the moral law.

The civil law will be fulfilled when Israel rules over the whole world as a nation and the civil laws of Israel become the laws in all of the land.

There is a difference between the moral law and the civil law.

The civil law has penalties in the government's treatment of sinners;

While the moral law very imply defines the sins that require those penalties according to the civil law.

The moral law is personal; the civil law is national.

The civil law applies to the penalties given (such as death for adultery or violating the sabbath).

The moral law applies to the morality therein (it identifies adultery or breaking the sabbath as being sinful).
 

justbyfaith

Well-known member
Sep 16, 2021
4,707
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#93
As usual, I'm not disagreeing with Scripture at all, but with your erroneous misinterpretation thereof. That you can't comprehend the distinction is a "you" problem.
You need to give the alternate interpretation of Hebrews 1:1-2 if you are going to give me that excuse.

If you are going to say that I have misinterpreted holy scripture, then you need to give us the faithful interpretation of that scripture.

If you cannot, then it only goes to show that I have given the faithful interpretation of it.
 

justbyfaith

Well-known member
Sep 16, 2021
4,707
462
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#94
I quote Scripture where appropriate to do so, as you can see in other threads. Where I can refute your assertions on the basis of logic or other means, I do so, and Scripture is either not needed or inappropriate to the task at hand.
I have never seen you either quote or reference holy scripture.

And you have failed to use any kind of sound logic to refute any of what I have posted.

The most I see you doing is to claim that I have taken verses out of context or that I have misinterpreted the verses at hand...nary ever a backing up of that claim with any kind of evidence.
 

Dino246

Senior Member
Jun 30, 2015
25,484
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#95
You need to give the alternate interpretation of Hebrews 1:1-2 if you are going to give me that excuse.

If you are going to say that I have misinterpreted holy scripture, then you need to give us the faithful interpretation of that scripture.

If you cannot, then it only goes to show that I have given the faithful interpretation of it.
I have tried explaining things to you. You have demonstrated that you are unteachable. Now I am content to point out your errors so that others are not misled.
 

Dino246

Senior Member
Jun 30, 2015
25,484
13,785
113
#96
There are aspects of the ceremonial law (which pertains to animal sacrifices) that have been fulfilled by the sacrifice of Christ on the Cross.

The aspects of the moral law are fulfilled in that,

1) Christ lived a perfect life and applies His life to our account; and,

2) Christ lives in us and through us so that we practically live lives that are pleasing to God according to the moral law.

The civil law will be fulfilled when Israel rules over the whole world as a nation and the civil laws of Israel become the laws in all of the land.

There is a difference between the moral law and the civil law.

The civil law has penalties in the government's treatment of sinners;

While the moral law very imply defines the sins that require those penalties according to the civil law.

The moral law is personal; the civil law is national.

The civil law applies to the penalties given (such as death for adultery or violating the sabbath).

The moral law applies to the morality therein (it identifies adultery or breaking the sabbath as being sinful).
Your explanation is interpretation, not Scripture.
 

justbyfaith

Well-known member
Sep 16, 2021
4,707
462
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#97
I have tried explaining things to you. You have demonstrated that you are unteachable. Now I am content to point out your errors so that others are not misled.
You have never pointed out any errors on my part...and no one is being misled by me.

I am not unteachable...but if you are trying to teach things that are contrary to what is taught by holy scripture, of course I am not going to accept your teaching.
 
P

pottersclay

Guest
#99
Gal: 3:10 "All who rely on observing the law are under a curse, for it is written: 'Cursed is everyone who does not continue to do everything written in the Book of the Law'"

Psalm 119:1 Blessed are those whose ways are blameless, who walk according to the law of the LORD.

Is God disagreeing with God?
Read these scriptures very carefully.
To rely on observeing the law....to walk in the ways....2 different things being said here.

To observe the law and rely that it is the way of salvation is completely wrong.
To walk according to the law is the conduct that we should try and meet.

Kindness, gentleness, loving, humbleness, are all acts of faith.