J
JesusistheChrist
Guest
No offense, but that's pretty funny coming from you. Where is any of your support for your fanciful stories? You know, things like this:Not to belabor the point, but you have not offered one shred of factual evidence for the KJV being a right or good translation and nothing substantive regarding the manuscript discussion. Or translational issues, but casually saying you have studied the original languages.
How did you study them? Using Strong's? That simply doesn't give you a clue about grammar and translational issues, to say nothing of syntax and context.
Before the KJV came into being, Erasmus completed 5 EDITIONS of his translation and the Johannine Comma wasn't even included in the first 2 editions, so what are you talking about? IOW, how did the RCC allegedly "stop him from dropping these verses"? It's a fanciful fairy tale that you're telling, but I challenge you to support it with facts. You've spun some other yarns as well, but that's your problem and not mine. I'd recommend that you research your own claims and that you stop making wild accusations about me and my own research. You're so far removed from reality in your wild guesses about me and my research that you really ought to stop and pray before making any others.Angela53510 said:First the KJV is based mostly on Erasmus' translation which was not fully complete, because of pressures from the Vatican to publish it fast. (He used Jeromes' incurate Latin version to fill in the gaps) When Erasmus translated the Bible for the RCC from the Greek and Hebrew, there were several problems. One, was that his research indicated tht the Johannine comma was NOT in the originals or the earliest manuscripts. The Vatican stopped him from dropping these verses, as they felt they needed it to prove that Jesus was God and the Trinity.