That's blatantly false. The plain text of the passage I referenced doesn't leave room for a pre-trib rapture or pre-trib return of Christ.
It is your
assumption (an incorrect one, borne out by the entire context)
that the following two are EQUATED (but they are NOT):
--V.1 "the coming/presence/
parousia of
OUR Lord Jesus Christ, and
OUR episynagoges UNTO HIM" (when only
WE will be "caught up TO
the meeting of the Lord
IN THE AIR"...
and NO ONE ELSE! [this is NOT His "RETURN"!]);
Accurately GRASPING what vv.
2-3 is conveying (and recognizing that THIS SEQUENCE is repeated by Paul 3x in the text which follows), will bring one to the correct conclusion that there is "ONE THING *FIRST*" that must take place BEFORE "the day of the Lord" can INDEED be
"present" (as the FALSE CLAIM was purporting to be TRUE, according to v.2);
...and we KNOW from what Paul stated earlier in 1Th5:
2-3 that "the DOTL" (the Subject of 2Th2:
2,3a)
ARRIVES "EXACTLY AS" the
INITIAL "birth PANG [
SINGULAR]"--the very ones that Jesus Himself spoke of, and which are EQUIVALENT to the "SEALS" of Rev6 at the START of the "IN QUICKNESS [NOUN]" time period,
per Rev1:1 / 1:19c / 4:1 (aka at the
START of the "future" specific, LIMITED time period we commonly call the "Trib" [aka "7 years" / "for ONE WEEK"]--NOT *arriving* at its CONCLUSION ["the DOTL" does not "ARRIVE" at the END of the Trib!])
--V.8b "the
MANIFESTATION of His presence/
parousia" (when He will come
to the earth and DESTROY the man of sin)
Verse 1 and Verse 8b are DISTINCT things occurring at very DISTINCT time-slots.
Just like
Verse 8a and
Verse 8b are referring to
entirely DISTINCT time-slots!
(the man of sin is not "destroyed" the exact moment he is "revealed," and I do not think even
you would claim such a thing...
though some may attempt to claim such, who fail to grasp the chronology issues, and do not care to...)