W
WoundedWarrior
Guest
1 John 1:9 is not talking about the original confession in coming to God. For who can confess all their sins when they first come to God? Usually it is a general admittance that they have sinned against God (or that they are a sinner) and they need Him as their Savior. This is obvious by the fact that John says in 1 John 2:1 to the brethren that they are to..... "sin not." But if they do sin they have an advocate named Jesus Christ that they can go to. Being cleansed of all sin in 1 John 1:7 is in reference to past sin and not future sin. For why confess sin so as to be forgiven of sin as 1 John 1:9 says? For even Proverbs 28:13 says he that confesses and forsakes sin shall have mercy. This is the same thing 1 John 1:9, 1 John 1:7, and 1 John 2:3-4 is teaching. For Paul even says to the brethren about their sins that Godly sorrow leads to repentance unto salvation (2 Corinthians 7:10). David confessed when he murdered and committed adultery and asked that the Lord take not His Spirit from him.
Jason, I believe you are using the wrong translation of the Bible...
