Skinski7 said:
Ro 5:18-19 articulates it well.
v. 18 - Just as the result of one trespass (sin in the garden) was condemnation for all men (Adam's guilt imputed to all men),
so also the result of one act of righteousness (Jesus' death) was justification that brings life for all men (forgiveness of sin imputed to all who believe in Jesus).
v. 19 - Just as through the disobedience of the one man (Adam), the many were made sinners (Adam's guilt imputed to all men),
so also through the obedience of the one man (Jesus), the many will be made righteous (Jesus' righteousness imputed to all who believe in him).
impute = to charge with (guilt of Adam), or credit with (righteousness of Christ)
"
An individual is accountable for their own sin because without the law sin is not imputed."
That doesn't even make sense.
You don't have a clue regarding the meaning of Ro 5:12-21 and imputation, which has already been covered with you (
here).
The Bible teaches that we are all
born in bondage to sin, sold to sin by Adam (Ro 5:12-14).
The argument of the text is as follows:
Death is the wages of
sin (Ro 6:23), and all sin is transgression of the
law (1Jn 3:4).
However, there was no law to transgress between Adam and Moses, and yet all mankind died (v.14).
Because death is the wages of
sin, their death means they were
guilty of sin (v.12).
But sin is not taken into account when there is no law (v.13).
So what
sin were those between Adam and Moses
guilty of that
caused their death?
Their death was caused by the transgression of
one man, of which transgression
all mankind was held guilty (Ro 5:15), which is why all men died between Adam and Moses
even though sin was not taken into account, and is the
only cause of death.
All mankind is
born in bondage to sin by their descent from Adam, who sold them to sin (Ro 7:14).
Men did not sell themselves into bondage to sin. Mankind inherited their bondage to sin from Adam,
caused by his transgression of the law, "Thou shalt not eat of it."
Therefore, all mankind is by their sinful nature
born an object of God's wrath (Eph 2:3).
Let's just cut to the chase:
Because you are clueless about the meaning of Ro 3:25-26 (and, therefore, cannot present a consistent and Biblical explanation of
my questions regarding it,
here)
you are, therefore, clueless about the meaning of Ro 5:12-21, and imputation.
So any further discussion witih you on atonement, or God's gift of righteousness (Ro 3:21, 22, 4:11, 5:17) is unproductive until you present that consistent and Biblical explanation of my questions, here.
You have clearly demonstrated the problem in two threads now, and this will be the third.
You are in no position to Biblically evaluate the authors you read because you don't understand the Scriptures.
You don't even know where to start to present your position Biblically, therefore, many of your statements on the Scriptures are just ridiculous, being based as they are in Biblical ignorance.
All you can do is present the views of other men, declaring those with whom you disagree to be wrong, and based in no sound understanding and exegesis of your own..
For example, you do not, because you cannot, exegete Ro 3:25-26 (presented
here).
There can be no productive discussion with you about the Scriptures because you don't understand them and, therefore, have to base your opinions of what is right and wrong on the opinions of men.
You really should not be trying to discuss the Bible when you cannot support your view with sound exegesis of the Scripture, in light of all the Scriptures.
You are simply defending the views of men, and not the Scriptures.
You should be in an unorthodox theology discussion forum, not in a Bible discussion forum.
