Is Knowledge of the Original Languages Necessary for KJV Believers?
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You are no authority here 
Your comparison overlooks a qualification in Paul’s statement that does not appear in Jesus’ statement.
(1) Paul’s statement (1 Corinthians 5:3, KJV):
“For I verily, as absent in body, but present in spirit, have judged already, as though I were present, concerning him that hath so done this deed,”
The relevant Greek in Beza 1598 is:
παρὼν δὲ τῷ πνεύματι, ἤδη κέκρικα ὡς παρὼν
“but present in spirit, have judged already, as though I were present.”
The words ὡς παρών (hōs parōn) mean “as if present.” Paul’s “present in spirit” and his judging “as though I were present” occur in the same sentence and concern the same act of judgment. They should be interpreted together. Paul is bodily absent but participates through his apostolic judgment as though personally there.
https://biblehub.com/beza/1_corinthians/5.htm
(2) LSJ’s entry for ὡς, under C.I, gives this grammatical category:
“with Participles in the case of the Subject, to mark the reason or motive of the action, as if, as”
This is the closest grammatical category because παρών is a participle in the nominative case referring to Paul, the subject. In this passage, the phrase expresses the assumed circumstance of his judging: “as if present.” LSJ supplies the relevant sense, although it does not specifically discuss this verse.
https://lsj.gr/wiki/ὡς
Cambridge Dictionary likewise defines the English expression “as though” as “as if.” Thus, the KJV’s “as though I were present” aligns with this meaning of the Greek.
https://dictionary.cambridge.org/us/dictionary/english/as-though
(3) Consider these examples:
“Although I was absent from the meeting, I sent my decision in writing, as though I were present.”
“Although I was absent from the meeting, I sent my decision in writing, as if I were present.”
Both mean that my decision participates in the meeting despite my personal absence. Neither means I am literally in the room.
“I supported them from another city, as though I were standing beside them.”
“I supported them from another city, as if I were standing beside them.”
Again, both describe support despite physical absence.
Now compare those statements with: “Wherever you gather, I am there in your midst.”
That directly asserts presence. It does not say, “It is as though I were there.” You would need to establish a figurative meaning from the context, rather than supply an “as though” qualification that the statement itself does not contain.
(4) Jesus’ statement (Matthew 18:20, KJV):
“For where two or three are gathered together in my name, there am I in the midst of them.”
Beza 1598 has:
Οὗ γάρ εἰσι δύο ἢ τρεῖς συνηγμένοι εἰς τὸ ἐμὸν ὄνομα, ἐκεῖ εἰμὶ ἐν μέσῳ αὐτῶν.
The concluding words, ἐκεῖ εἰμὶ ἐν μέσῳ αὐτῶν, mean “there am I in their midst.” There is no ὡς qualifying His presence as “as if” or “as though.”
https://biblehub.com/beza/matthew/18.htm
You suggest that the Father treats their prayer as though Jesus were among them asking alongside them. But that is something you are imagining and supplying to the passage. It is not stated in the actual text. Jesus says He is in their midst.
Furthermore, Paul describes his participation in one particular congregation’s judgment. Jesus gives a general promise concerning gatherings in His name. Therefore, taking Jesus’ promise as actual presence does not require making Paul omnipresent. Your comparison does not establish that their statements mean the same thing.
(5) Let’s also not ignore John 3:13, which says in the KJV:
“And no man hath ascended up to heaven, but he that came down from heaven, even the Son of man which is in heaven.”
While speaking to Nicodemus on earth, Jesus describes Himself as “the Son of man which is in heaven.” This supports Christ’s divine presence beyond His bodily location on earth. I understand this in connection with His being one with the Father in heaven (John 10:30).
The modern Critical Text omits “which is in heaven” from John 3:13, and translations following that reading omit it from their main text as well. This is a Greek textual difference, not merely an English translation choice. The omitted Greek is ὁ ὢν ἐν τῷ οὐρανῷ, meaning “who is in heaven.” Thus, this omission removes an explicit testimony to His heavenly presence while on earth.
https://biblehub.com/john/3-13.htm
https://biblehub.com/texts/john/3-13.htm
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Communication is always going to be imperfect. I am sure there are many things you had to clarify to others before and I am sure it will not be your last, either. I am just saying that most people I have run into do not claim that a man cannot forgive another person and also most Christians understand that it God's forgiveness is different. So your disagreement here is not really a point that disproves the original point I made. The type of forgiveness Jesus offered was God's forgiveness that deals with their salvation. Man cannot offer another man forgiveness as a part of salvation without God involved. This was the original point I was making in that Jesus has power as God. So this point is still a winning score for my list.
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