I think you're proving my point rather than refuting it.Buddy look. All forms of texts have a mind behind them. We can test to see what would be an obvious corruption by looking at patterns of bad changes over and over and over and over and over and over again. That is what my one writeup has demonstrated clearly (although the writeup is under revision to match it up with the original languages with the older lexicons). Texts do not just appear out of thin air. There is a mind at work that is behind those words. When we see bad doctrines that fits a pattern (just like detectives see patterns to solve various crimes), we are led to the obvious conclusion that one text is pure and the other is corrupt. Well, that is if you believe verses like Psalms 12:6-7, etcetera. If not, then this whole convo is going to go in one ear and out the other. It would be as if I am speaking a foreign language to you. If you and your gang are promoting corrupted versions of God's words (which I believe you are), then there is a dark spirit at work that is blinding you to seeing the promises of God in Scripture in the purity and preservation of His words. Those verses do not live on the inside of you and so you will fight against them. We see warnings of not hearing God in Scripture. The man of God who was killed by a lion because he did not listen to God but he listened to a man instead. That's how I see your movement. You listen to men and scholars and not what God's word actually says when it comes to purity and preservation of his own words. This is not an argument I am attempting to win with you here. Only God can open your eyes to the truth on such verses. If you reject them, well, you will have to explain to the Lord Jesus why you did so. It's just that simple.
Side Note:
Are there accidental slips that may have happened in the biblical text? Yeah, I am sure. But then you act like there is no intentional bad changes in the Bible throughout history, though. If you look at the patterns as I was alluding to before, it doesn't really take a rocket scientist to figure it out.
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I have no problem acknowledging that intentions, doctrines, and biases can influence scribes, translators, scholars, and manuscript traditions.
Human beings are involved in the process, and human beings bring assumptions with them.
The question is whether those assumptions can be demonstrated from the text or merely asserted.
For example, you appeal to Psalm 12:6-7 as a promise of perfect textual preservation.
Others argue the immediate context refers to God's preservation of His people mentioned in verse 5 rather than the words themselves.
Simply claiming one interpretation is obvious does not make it so.
The text still has to be examined in context.
Likewise, when you say one manuscript tradition is pure and another corrupt because of doctrinal patterns, you've moved beyond textual evidence and into a theory of transmission.
That theory may be right or wrong, but it is still a framework being brought to the evidence.
The very thing you're accusing others of doing, you're doing as well.
Where I continue to disagree is when disagreement is explained primarily by spiritual blindness.
If a brother believes a different textual tradition is better supported by the manuscript evidence, that does not automatically mean he is rejecting God's promises.
It means he interprets those promises differently.
So I return to the same question: Can the corruption be demonstrated from the text, the manuscripts, and the evidence itself?
If it can, let the evidence stand.
If it requires first assuming that one tradition is pure and all others are corrupt, then the conclusion is already built into the premise. That is the point I have been trying to make all along.