Is Man Capable of Translating the Bible?

[KJV1611]

According to 2 Peter the answer is most certainly no!

2Pe 1:20 Knowing this first, that no prophecy of the scripture is of any private interpretation.
2Pe 1:21 For the prophecy came not in old time by the will of man: but holy men of God spake as they were moved by the Holy Ghost.

What is the first step in translating a text from one language to another? Interpreting the original.
Here's is one example what a translator would have to interpreter in order to translate KJV English into modern English.

Heb 12:1 Wherefore seeing we also are compassed about with so great a cloud of witnesses, let us lay aside every weight, and the sin which doth so easily beset us, and let us run with patience the race that is set before us,

Look at the definition of "compass" below. What what word should be used for "compassed". Should it be "going around", "surrounded", or "accomplished"?

com·pass
ˈkəmpəs/Submit
verbarchaic
past tense: compassed; past participle: compassed
1.
go around (something) in a circular course.
"the ship wherein Magellan compassed the world"
2.
contrive to accomplish (something).
"he compassed his end only by the exercise of violence"

Should Hebrews 12:1 read:
1) Wherefore seeing we also are going around about with so great a cloud of witness...
2) Wherefore seeing we also are surrounded about with so great a cloud of witness...
3) Wherefore seeing we also are accomplished about with so great a cloud of witness...

Ok stop right here. 2 Peter is already broken. The translator has to read the entire verse so that he can interpret what he thinks God's intention was for this word. Can you see the absolute absurdity in thinking that a mere man could translate the entire bible as God originally intended it? Not only that, they have to do it using a language that has been dead for hundreds of years.

 

[JaumeJ]

Translate, yes, quite well, now interpreting is exclusivly of the Holy Spirit. Let no one deceive anyone in the latter.

 

[Tintin]

How did you get your precious KJV translation, if the Bible hadn't been translated from the original Hebrew, Aramaic and Koine Greek?

 

[daughteroflight]

Spiritual things are revealed to the child by the Holy Spirit that we get acter baptism.

 

[didymos]

Translation is interpertation by definition. If you can't accept that you should (learn how to) read scripture in the original hebrew and greek.

 

[JaumeJ]

Translation is mechanical, there are dictionaries from a given language to another which supply definitions of words accepted by either side, while interpretation involves not only translation but understanding in a given language.

We do not interpret the Word when reading in our native tongue, it is either given by the Holy Spirit, or it is not.

 

[4enlightment]

According to 2 Peter the answer is most certainly no!

2Pe 1:20 Knowing this first, that no prophecy of the scripture is of any private interpretation.
2Pe 1:21 For the prophecy came not in old time by the will of man: but holy men of God spake as they were moved by the Holy Ghost.

What is the first step in translating a text from one language to another? Interpreting the original.
Here's is one example what a translator would have to interpreter in order to translate KJV English into modern English.

Heb 12:1 Wherefore seeing we also are compassed about with so great a cloud of witnesses, let us lay aside every weight, and the sin which doth so easily beset us, and let us run with patience the race that is set before us,

Look at the definition of "compass" below. What what word should be used for "compassed". Should it be "going around", "surrounded", or "accomplished"?

com·pass
ˈkəmpəs/Submit
verbarchaic
past tense: compassed; past participle: compassed
1.
go around (something) in a circular course.
"the ship wherein Magellan compassed the world"
2.
contrive to accomplish (something).
"he compassed his end only by the exercise of violence"

Should Hebrews 12:1 read:
1) Wherefore seeing we also are going around about with so great a cloud of witness...
2) Wherefore seeing we also are surrounded about with so great a cloud of witness...
3) Wherefore seeing we also are accomplished about with so great a cloud of witness...

Ok stop right here. 2 Peter is already broken. The translator has to read the entire verse so that he can interpret what he thinks God's intention was for this word. Can you see the absolute absurdity in thinking that a mere man could translate the entire bible as God originally intended it? Not only that, they have to do it using a language that has been dead for hundreds of years.

The Holy Spirit inspired or guide those in bringing the truth in. But certainly, I myself doesn't know ancient Aramaic, Latin, or Greek. Holy Spirit bring in knowledge of the word and wisdom to discern it.

 

[danschance]

Can man translate German into English?............Yes.
Can man translate French into Spanish?.............Yes.
Can man translate Italian into Russian?..............Yes.
Can man translate Latvian into Tagalag?.............Yes.
Can man translate Chinese into Japanese?..........Yes.
Can man translate Navajo into English?..............Yes.
Can man translate any language into another?....Yes.

Most bible colleges teach Greek and Hebrew so why do you think it can't be translated into English?

 

[didymos]

Translation is mechanical, there are dictionaries from a given language to another which supply definitions of words accepted by either side, while interpretation involves not only translation but understanding in a given language.

We do not interpret the Word when reading in our native tongue, it is either given by the Holy Spirit, or it is not.

If translation was a MECHANICAL process all translators would just be using google translate.

Back to 2 Peter 1: 20

Knowing this first, that no prophecy of the scripture is of any PRIVATE interpretation.

Translation and interpertating scripture should never be a PRIVATE process, but something that is done in the greater COMMUNITY of Christ, together with fellow christians. That comes with a huge responsibility, because a lot of people rely on scripture in translation, since they can't understand the original. I agree with JaumeJ that the Holy Spirit has an important role in the process, a role that should be acknowledged by translators also. Even the translated text should be inspired by God's Spirit, as it should convey God's Truth to believers. A translator should first and foremost be an instrument of the Holy Spirit, a servant of the greater community of christians, the Church of Christ.

 

[Tintin]

Google Translate is a helpful tool but you also get some interesting results.

 

[p_rehbein]

I haven't seen that SN for quite some time, and then on another Site......... A little surprised to see it here.

[edited to add]

If memory serves me, and he/she hangs around, get ready for some doozies...........just saying.

 

[Agricola]

According to 2 Peter the answer is most certainly no!

2Pe 1:20 Knowing this first, that no prophecy of the scripture is of any private interpretation.
2Pe 1:21 For the prophecy came not in old time by the will of man: but holy men of God spake as they were moved by the Holy Ghost.

Yet another hatchet job of scripture to promote this vile cults position. This has nothing to do with translating texts, it has everything to do with interpretation and decernment of someone giving a prophecy.

 

[Tintin]

Haha! Even the verses posted (without context) by the OP to support their position, prove they're wrong.

 

[JaumeJ]

When the parables were spoken by our Lord, even His disciples were obliged to learn the true meaning or interpretation of what had been conveyed. Yeshua would interpret the meaning for them saying that for them it was given to know. This is not from one language to another. Had they been in another language, and then translated to Hebrew, they yet would have need of interpretation.

This is obvious to anhyone who believes Yeshua. Now an interpreter does translate languages, but he is just translating, not truly interpreting. Interpreter is what they are called, but it is a misnommer.

The above is a bucket that holds water, and it is useful to all. This has been an explanation, not an argument. If the above is true, then please, do not pervert what is true into some kind of argument, I know I have been stuck with a fork, and I am done.

 

[john832]

Translation is interpertation by definition. If you can't accept that you should (learn how to) read scripture in the original hebrew and greek.

Problem here is that the ORIGINAL Hebrew and Greek manuscripts are no longer in existence.

 

[Josh321]

honestly i'm tired of seeing threads like this, of which bible is correct and which isn't God is the God of the universe correct? do you really think he wouldn't want things exactly how they are at this present moment? come on people have some faith and stop doubting!

 

[didymos]

Problem here is that the ORIGINAL Hebrew and Greek manuscripts are no longer in existence.

Ofcourse that's a 'problem;'
we can only translate the manuscripts that ARE available to us, NOT those that aren't, duh.

We have to make do with what we got. The hebrew texts that we have probably come closest to the original. For instance, there are only a few minor differences between the text of the Isaiah scroll from Qumran and the 'modern' hebrew text (BHS). Goes to show that the jews in ages past copied their Torah with great care.
There are sometimes major differences between the greek sources. There we should try to find out which of them is the oldest; that one should come closest to the original. For the words of Jesus there will never be an 'original' available, since He Himself never wrote anything. We just have to rely on the accounts of His life by the evangelists.

 

[HeRoseFromTheDead]

Can you see the absolute absurdity in thinking that a mere man could translate the entire bible as God originally intended it? Not only that, they have to do it using a language that has been dead for hundreds of years.

OK isn't all this really about King James having found the original manuscripts written on gold plates after being directed to their burial location in the ground by an angel named Moron? And that they were written in GOD's original language, Old English in Gothic type, so that no translation is needed?

 

[thecreationtutor]

so why did the KJV get written then by men

 

[thecreationtutor]

OK isn't all this really about King James having found the original manuscripts written on gold plates after being directed to their burial location in the ground by an angel named Moron? And that they were written in GOD's original language, Old English in Gothic type, so that no translation is needed?

I wish I wrote this