For what and why. What difference will it make?
1 Thessalonians 2:13.
2 Timothy 3:16.
Romans 10:17.
For without faith, it is impossible to please Him.
Doubting his Word and thinking it has errors in it is a lack of faith.
For what and why. What difference will it make?
Yep, I know that guy also, he tried to take the new testament and inject it into the old testament. Talk about seeing errors, that guy is beyond words he now moves entire chapters. That's ok, I have done it also. It is a part of spending 20+ years studying the bible days at the time. God's word is pure, the errors are there to bring man to awareness of his message. It is by language that you fall and I am always right there to pick you up and set you right back where you have always been.
Nope that was mistake.... I confused Ahaziah with Azariah.There's actually three Ahazaih's in 2 Kings. The other was the son of Joram or Jehoram I can't remember which right now but he had a son named Ahaziah also.
1 Thessalonians 2:13.
2 Timothy 3:16.
Romans 10:17.
For without faith, it is impossible to please Him.
Doubting his Word and thinking it has errors in it is a lack of faith.
The Old Testament Law of Moses has been fulfilled in Jesus Christ; And we are now under the New Testament.
As for the supposed errors you see in the KJV: They only exist in your mind and cannot be confirmed by comparing Scripture with Scripture.
So without FAITH it is impossible to please him? Faith is SUBSTANCE, so now you try to get him after the flesh when it is yourself who should start in faith so that one day MAYBE you may have his grace.
1 Thessalonians 2:13.
2 Timothy 3:16.
Romans 10:17.
For without faith, it is impossible to please Him.
Doubting his Word and thinking it has errors in it is a lack of faith.
Now you are getting really confusing.
At least the KJV ONLY cultists don't vacillate.
The Apocrypha was in the KJV for 274 years, until 1885. Your KJV of 1765 still had the Apocrypha in it. If many knew the Apocrypha was not the Word of God, then they knew the KJV was not perfect. Right?
And now you say the Latin Vulgate was perfect until the KJV, but it is no longer perfect? The Vulgate didn't really change. What caused it to go from perfect to imperfect? Merely the existence of the KJV?
Then how does the sinner get saved. He never read the bible?
AND faith in what an Ahaziah view?
Every detail in the Old Testament speaks of Jesus Christ. In fact many truths in the Old help us to understand the New Testament better.
Actually Jesus Christ is not mentioned even once in the old testament. You think all the obscure words hint at Jesus Christ being there when actually is it the Holy Spirit of God, which Jesus had and now we are all capable of coming to know.
Did anybody happen to catch the name of this thread? King James authorized bible vs the rest of other bibles
This thread is not about how one gets saved... it compares the KJV to the rest of the bibles. People post so called errors in the KJV and we show scripture to prove them wrong.![]()
This guy is posting a lot of errors and I am trying to do just that.
1Co 10:1 Moreover, brethren, I would not that ye should be ignorant, how that all our fathers were under the cloud, and all passed through the sea;
1Co 10:2 And were all baptized unto Moses in the cloud and in the sea;
1Co 10:3 And did all eat the same spiritual meat;
1Co 10:4 And did all drink the same spiritual drink: for they drank of that spiritual Rock that followed them: and that Rock was Christ.
Actually Jesus Christ is not mentioned even once in the old testament. You think all the obscure words hint at Jesus Christ being there when actually is it the Holy Spirit of God, which Jesus had and now we are all capable of coming to know.