I have read the entire Bible many times. What is your point?I suggest that you also read Hebrews 3:7-8, 3:15, and 4:7.
I have read the entire Bible many times. What is your point?I suggest that you also read Hebrews 3:7-8, 3:15, and 4:7.
Yes, they can. Your ignorance of translational issues limits your understanding of this matter.You danced around the question. Which one is it, or neither. It obv cannot be both. My point, two versions cannot both be called the word of God.
Which, consistent with the reasoning you employ, is evidence that the KJV is wrong.
No, it really indicates that the modern translations are faulty / watered down.Which, consistent with the reasoning you employ, is evidence that the KJV is wrong.
My point is in the scriptures that I referenced to you.I have read the entire Bible many times. What is your point?
… Perhaps; I’m not interested in arguing that point. Like the rocks, birds and weeds in the parable if the sower, Ehrman steers people away from Jesus.I didn't see where you pointed out my observations prior to my quoted post.
I don't know that his work drives people from the faith. Ehrman was a Christian, now turned to Agnostic.
He's a scholar and professor of NT studies and invests in the field of textual criticism.
Teaching the history of how the canon came to exist shouldn't turn people from wanting to learn about Christ.
And we know no one can take us from Christ.
No, it doesn’t at all. Your view is based on the presumption that the KjV is correct, and your reasoning is circular.No, it really indicates that the modern translations are faulty / watered down.
Snark and personal attacks will get you absolutely nowhere with me. Don’t be a jackdonkey.My point is in the scriptures that I referenced to you.
If you think that you do not need to read them because you already know the Bible, perhaps they apply to you more than I previously thought.
Go back and read the OP.Do you believe that any version is the word of God?
Sanctify them through thy truth: thy word is truth.
Your view is based on the presumption that the kjv is incorrect. How is your reasoning also not circular?No, it doesn’t at all. Your view is based on the presumption that the KjV is correct, and your reasoning is circular.
Go back and read the OP.
I do.The OP is wrong in his thinking. That's the point. Duck and diving the question at hand. Can more than one version be the word of God when they contain different words and different truths?
Do you believe the KJV is the word of God?
No, the OP is not wrong. He is making the point that even the KJV translators themselves did not hold to the idea that any translation was perfect (and I don’t mean ‘complete’ or ‘mature’) and they did hold the idea that various translations are actually the word of God even if they are considerably less than perfect.The OP is wrong in his thinking. That's the point. Duck and diving the question at hand. Can more than one version be the word of God when they contain different words and different truths?
Do you believe the KJV is the word of God?
No, the OP is not wrong. He is making the point that even the KJV translators themselves did not hold to the idea that any translation was perfect (and I don’t mean ‘complete’ or ‘mature’) and they did hold the idea that various translations are actually the word of God even if they are considerably less than perfect.
I’m not going to answer your leading question.
Actually, my comments are based on an evidence-based conclusion, not a presumption or assumption.Your view is based on the presumption that the kjv is incorrect. How is your reasoning also not circular?
Wrong again… as usual.Ok, now we are getting somewhere...you and the OP do not believe the word of God is anywhere to be found in any translation. At least that's settles. Was that so hard to finally admit?
Sad...Ok, now we are getting somewhere...you and the OP do not believe the word of God is anywhere to be found in any translation. At least that's settles. Was that so hard to finally admit?
My comments are based on an evidence-based conclusion.Actually, my comments are based on an evidence-based conclusion, not a presumption or assumption.
No, the OP is not wrong. He is making the point that even the KJV translators themselves did not hold to the idea that any translation was perfect (and I don’t mean ‘complete’ or ‘mature’) and they did hold the idea that various translations are actually the word of God even if they are considerably less than perfect.
I’m not going to answer your leading question.
Not in the opening post, he didn’t. I do agree with the opening post.You are in agreement with the OP. The OP clearly stated that the word of God is not found in any translation.