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So some human strength is needed to live in God’s grace…
Is that like reconciling yourself mostly dead in Christ?
“Having been nearly buried with Him…”

You 14%’ers are a hoot!
Do we choose?
Do we have any part to play?

If not it is all God's fault that we are lost.

All the power comes from God but we must surrender self. We must choose to walk in the Spirit and chose not to walk in the flesh.

Without Christ we can do nothing but He does not force us to obey. We must open the door and let Him in.
 
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The whole law as he is a debtor to do the whole law not some part of the law (Galatians 5:3)

The law is not divided into sections because Israel agreed to obey the Book of the Covenant, which is the entire package.

What do you think the phrase "the law" means TMS?

Obviously it include the law of Mt Sinai plus the prophets not some philosophical snippet called moral law.

How can you say this is not referring to the ten commandments?

The law that was added was the law that was given at Mt Sinai.

Exodus 20 was spoken by the Lord at Mt Sinai and that was the law 430 years after the promise.

This is crazy talk TMS.

The point you miss is what "the law" means.

Israel received the written law and that included the ten words and that was 430 years later.

Did you notice "written law" and that's exactly what Israel received.

Before Mt Sinai there was no written law of the ten commandments.

Which law?

Your ignoring the whole law given at Mt Sinai and that was written down by Moses.
There were 2 laws given

One was given by Moses from God, the other was given by God directly.

The moral law—the Ten Commandments—was spoken directly by the mouth of God to the people and written by His own finger, while the ceremonial law (the law of Moses) was dictated to and given by the hand of a mediator.

See Ex 20:1,2. Deut 5:22.
Ex 31:18, 32:16,

The second law, often called the "law of Moses" or "law of commandments contained in ordinances," dealt with the sanctuary service, sacrifices, and judgments peculiar to the Jewish economy. These were given through a mediator because of the people's transgression and their fear of God’s direct presence.

Ex 20:19,
And made known to them your holy sabbath, and commanded them precepts, statutes, and laws, by the hand of Moses your servant :Nehemiah 9:14

Galatians 3:19
Why then serves the law? It was added because of transgressions, till the seed should come to whom the promise was made; and it was ordained by angels in the hand of a mediator.

Act 7:37-38
37 This is that Moses, which said unto the children of Israel, A prophet shall the Lord your God raise up unto you of your brethren, like unto me; him shall ye hear. 38 This is he, that was in the church in the wilderness with the angel which spake to him in the mount Sina, and with our fathers: who received the lively oracles to give unto us:


ADDED BECAUSE OF SIN.

there was no need for the cerimonial laws before sin. If Adam and humans stayed faithful there would not have been a need for the cerimonial laws.

But the moral laws have been in existence from the start, before sin because they define sin.

The 10 commandments were not added because of sin they define sin.
 
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He means that, unlike Adam, who heard directly from God not to eat from the Tree, those who lived between Adam and Moses never heard from God. He was silent all those years. God never commanded anyone until Moses. Yet, people died anyway. That's his point. God held them responsible for their sins even though there wasn't a commandment forbidding sin.

But no law = no sin.

To understand why "no law" would mean "no sin," we must first look at how the Bible defines sin. Sin is not an abstract concept; it is specifically defined by the moral standard God has set for the universe.

The most direct definition is found in 1 John 3:4, which states that "whosoever committeth sin transgresseth also the law: for sin is the transgression of the law."

The law acts as a mirror to show us our true condition. Without it, we would be unaware of our spiritual defects. As it says in Romans 3:20.
"for by the law is the knowledge of sin." Paul further illustrates this in Romans 7:7, saying, "I had not known sin, but by the law: for I had not known lust, except the law had said, Thou shalt not covet."

For God to justly judge the world, a law must be in place. If there were no law, there could be no violation, and therefore no guilt or penalty.

No Law, = No Transgression: Scripture explicitly links the existence of transgression to the existence of law. Romans 4:15 tells us, "Because the law worketh wrath: for where no law is, there is no transgression."

If God were to abolish His law, He would essentially be abolishing the possibility of sin. However, the Bible confirms the law's presence throughout history because sin was being counted. Romans 5:13 explains, "For until the law sin was in the world: but sin is not imputed when there is no law."

A law known to the people in some way. God talked to people. Before Sinia.

The Strength of Sin: The power that sin has to condemn us comes directly from the law we have broken. 1 Corinthians 15:56 states, "The sting of death is sin; and the strength of sin is the law."

Some mistakenly believe the law did not exist until Mount Sinai. However, the presence of death—the wages of sin—proves that the law was already in effect from the very beginning

Because "the wages of sin is death" (Romans 6:23), the fact that people died before Sinai proves they were transgressors of a law. Romans 5:14 notes, "Nevertheless death reigned from Adam to Moses."

Abraham ..... Long before the stone tables were given, God commended Abraham for his loyalty. In Genesis 26:5, the Lord says, "Because that Abraham obeyed my voice, and kept my charge, my commandments, my statutes, and my laws."

I hope this helps.
 
What about circumcsion?

Circumcision was a covenant commandment given to Abraham (Genesis 17).

The principle of an ordinance, that is, circumcision is in Genesis and in Exodus.

The principle of slavery was widespread in Genesis and even Abraham had slaves. So does slavery get mentioned in the law
in Exodus?

Yes it does.

How about polygamy?

In Exodus 21:10, the law states: "If he takes another wife to himself, he shall not diminish her food, her clothing, or her
marital rights."
Rather than commanding or praising polygamy, this civil law functioned to protect the economic and
social dignity of a vulnerable first wife if a husband chose to take a second.

Polygamy is a principle in the O.T and is also mentioned in the law in Exodus.

Tithing is a principle in the O.T and Exodus.

Easter and the Lunar Calendar
    • The Catholic Church sets Easter using an ecclesiastical lunar calendar rather than direct astronomical observation.
    • The Rule states that Easter falls on the first Sunday following the first ecclesiastical full moon (the 14th day of a tabular moon cycle) that occurs on or after March 21 (the fixed vernal equinox). (AI)

Do we time church events on the principle of ancient lunar calendars used in Genesis and Exodus?
The 10 commandments do not command circumcision.
Or those other things you mentioned.
They were not written on stone by the finger of God.
 
But no law = no sin.

To understand why "no law" would mean "no sin," we must first look at how the Bible defines sin. Sin is not an abstract concept; it is specifically defined by the moral standard God has set for the universe.

The most direct definition is found in 1 John 3:4, which states that "whosoever committeth sin transgresseth also the law: for sin is the transgression of the law."

The law acts as a mirror to show us our true condition. Without it, we would be unaware of our spiritual defects. As it says in Romans 3:20.
"for by the law is the knowledge of sin." Paul further illustrates this in Romans 7:7, saying, "I had not known sin, but by the law: for I had not known lust, except the law had said, Thou shalt not covet."

For God to justly judge the world, a law must be in place. If there were no law, there could be no violation, and therefore no guilt or penalty.

No Law, = No Transgression: Scripture explicitly links the existence of transgression to the existence of law. Romans 4:15 tells us, "Because the law worketh wrath: for where no law is, there is no transgression."

If God were to abolish His law, He would essentially be abolishing the possibility of sin. However, the Bible confirms the law's presence throughout history because sin was being counted. Romans 5:13 explains, "For until the law sin was in the world: but sin is not imputed when there is no law."

A law known to the people in some way. God talked to people. Before Sinia.

The Strength of Sin: The power that sin has to condemn us comes directly from the law we have broken. 1 Corinthians 15:56 states, "The sting of death is sin; and the strength of sin is the law."

Some mistakenly believe the law did not exist until Mount Sinai. However, the presence of death—the wages of sin—proves that the law was already in effect from the very beginning

Because "the wages of sin is death" (Romans 6:23), the fact that people died before Sinai proves they were transgressors of a law. Romans 5:14 notes, "Nevertheless death reigned from Adam to Moses."

Abraham ..... Long before the stone tables were given, God commended Abraham for his loyalty. In Genesis 26:5, the Lord says, "Because that Abraham obeyed my voice, and kept my charge, my commandments, my statutes, and my laws."

I hope this helps.
And if murder was not a known law, then it could not have been a sin.
Why would God punish Cain for breaking a law that did not exist?
Yet there is no biblical texts that shows Cain was told murder was wrong.
What of the Great Flood? If no laws existed the antediluvian peoples could NOT have been evil. God would have been unjust killing them all.
What of Sodom and Gomorrah? Where is the command against their promiscuous lifestyles?

Does God actually kill people for breaking laws that do not exist?
 
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