Are you referring to the metaphysical "baptized in the Spirit" of today or the "baptized in the Spirit" of Acts 2 with the tongues of fire?But many have not been baptized in the Spirit and count on water.
Are you referring to the metaphysical "baptized in the Spirit" of today or the "baptized in the Spirit" of Acts 2 with the tongues of fire?But many have not been baptized in the Spirit and count on water.
Are you referring to the metaphysical "baptized in the Spirit" of today or the "baptized in the Spirit" of Acts 2 with the tongues of fire?
not to me it doesn'tThis is not what "predestined" means.
Predestined means to be predetermined such as by fate.
There is confusion because you are not addressing the question.
Instead of asking about Moses and the church how about just answering the earlier question.
"I will try this...." is not helpful.
Just answer the question.
Who are the predestined?
Answering the predestined are those who God predestined is not a answer.
The word predestined means Gods knows who are going to be saved before there born.
For me it's that's simple, and for me I see many instance where God spoke to people in there present time.
Well seeing as he knew who would pass the test. It's only fair and most logical that he spoke that message in a time that's distant to ours but also alive in our time at the same time.
This being the most convincing truth to me. Believer names are written in the book of life before the world was created and I'm so happy that they are.
Because that mean I have an glorious God able to do glorious wonders in my life
Okay...but what about the question?In Acts 2, was simply one manifestation of the Baptism of the Spirit.
It was to be introduced all shockingly new!
And it also tells us that Jews require a sign. [1 Corinthians 1:22]
Now, If the baptism of the Spirit came as it does now, after the ceasing of the temporary gifts?
No one would have noticed anything changing overtly.
The baptism of the Spirit with me was very subtle and quiet.
But the word predestined does not mean Gods knows who are going to be saved before they were born. Here is the definition of the Greek word, from the concordance of my bible software:
" 4309 proorizo [pro-or-id -zo]
from 4253 and 3724; v; TDNT-5:456,728; [{See TDNT 563 }]
AV-predestinate 4, determine before 1, ordain 1; 6
1) to predetermine, decide beforehand
2) in the NT of God decreeing from eternity
3) to foreordain, appoint beforehand"
There is far more involved in predestination than simply knowing beforehand.
oopsDid you mean to reply back? Or did you accidentally hit the "Reply" function?
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Okay...but what about the question?
Have you forgotten the question?
There is confusion because you are not addressing the question.
Instead of asking about Moses and the church how about just answering the earlier question.
"I will try this...." is not helpful.
Just answer the question.
Who are the predestined?
Answering the predestined are those who God predestined is not a answer.
This is your "simple" question?I asked you a question about Moses being predestined (or, not predestined) to be in the Church.
It was to get you explain what you think predestined means.
But, you refused to answer a simple question to find that out.
Predestination does most certainly mean predetermines.
No.Does God predetermine that you will believe because He wants you to believe it?
If you are going to "clarify" my question, at least rewrite the question so I can understand your answer.I clarified your question.
There are not two different baptisms of the Spirit, simply because how it can be manifested may vary.
grace and peace ............
If you are going to "clarify" my question, at least rewrite the question so I can understand your answer.
Are you referring to the metaphysical "baptized in the Spirit" of today or the "baptized in the Spirit" of Acts 2 with the tongues of fire?
I think we are none here. Your writing is mind numbing.The question was included in my post to you. I quoted yourself.
I was explaining that there is only one Baptism of the Holy Spirit.
Just different manifestations.
Here is your question with my answer again.
It was to show that what you asked was not about two different things.
https://christianchat.com/threads/loss-of-salvation.215327/post-5567351
Where you asked.....
grace and peace .....
In Acts 2, was simply one manifestation of the Baptism of the Spirit.
It was to be introduced all shockingly new!
And it also tells us that Jews require a sign. [1 Corinthians 1:22]
Now, If the baptism of the Spirit came as it does now, after the ceasing of the temporary gifts?
No one would have noticed anything changing overtly.
The baptism of the Spirit with me was very subtle and quiet.
Does God predetermine that you will believe because He wants you to believe it?
Uh, oh. The deadness of Calvinistic beliefs almost always manifest in conversations about salvation. MM
They got a great deal correct about man being depraved.
But, they went too far in how it works.
In doing so, they ended up painted themselves into a corner.
To get themselves out?
The solution?
Why not?
The RCC did it.
Make something up, and call it an answer.
Hence, we ended up with the quick-fix, Irresistible grace.
Now they refuse to admit their error after successfully making a break with the Tyrannical RCC.