Man imputed Jesus with sin on the cross, not God.

[ATG]

if God did not impute your sins to christ on the cross.

If God imputed your sins to His Son the cross, then He was made a sinner on the cross, and you were made righteous by crucifying Him.

And God is not the righteous and just Judge of all the earth.

Mark 13:22
For false Christs and false prophets shall rise, and shall shew signs and wonders, to seduce, if it were possible, even the elect.

You have no means of forgiveness. You are dead in your sin

The only means of foergiviness is by repenting of our sinnng against Him, through His resurrection from the dead.

Anyone still sinning against Him is dead in their sin.

 

[ATG]

I had no idea so many do not actually understand that Jesus HAD to die on our behalf and GOD is the one who laid OUR sins upon Him.

I have plenty idea why so many do not actually understand that Jesus HAD to die on our behalf, because we sinned against Him. And we are the ones who laid OUR sins upon His back, head, and body.

Because many so many do not want to believe that our own sinning, was the cause of His death on a cross, the same as the wicked hands that slew Him.

God raised Him up because death could not hold him as He was sinless.

Correct. Because He knew no sin, nor had any sin laid upon His soul. Certainly not our sins, that wickedly killed Him.

I mean are people ignoring the Old Testament completely and then substituting humanistic 'feelings' and reasoning to scripture and coming up with 'oh that can't be right'?

Speak of the devil.

People ignore the OT prophecy that only we imputed, recknoned, and executed Jesus for sin on a cross. They'd much rather feel like God did it for us, so as to be justified by His unjust death.

Wicked stuff.

Job 27:8
For what is the hope of the hypocrite, though he hath gained, when God taketh away his soul?

“God made him who had no sin to be sin for us, so that in him we might become the righteousness of God” II Cor. 5:21

It could not be plainer.

Correct. Imopossible for God to impute, charge, nor lay any sin to any soul, that has no sin, much less the only begotten Son of God, Jesus Christ the righteous.

God made Jesus (who had no sin) to be sin for us.

Continuing to deny this fact, the actual heart of the Bible

The actual heart of Satan is that men didn't charge, impute, and execute Jesus on a cross, but only God the Father did.

Rev 2:24
But unto you I say, and unto the rest in Thyatira, as many as have not this doctrine, and which have not known the depths of Satan, that they speak;

he was a substitutionary sacrifice on our behalf,

The only thing substituted by the sacrifce, is one physical death for another. Bulls and goats had no souls to be imputed with and bear sins. And the Lamb of God had no sin on His soul.

Only the soul that sins still dies for their own sinning against God and His Son.

The innocent dying for the guilty, is not by first making the innocent guilty. God does not accept an sinful sacrifice.

He that has no sin, has no sin imputed to him, for he has no guilt of any sin at all.

You are denying the actual gospel and for those who teach that lie, it will not go good in the future.

I am denying your actual gospel, that only leads you to make Jesus guilty for your own sinning against God and Jesus Christ.

Gal 1:6
I marvel that ye are so soon removed from him that called you into the grace of Christ unto another gospel. Which is not another; but there be some that trouble you, and would pervert the gospel of Christ.

Anyone can feel that the price of their own sinning, has already been paid by another soul. But feelings aside, everyone soul still dies by our own sinning.

 

[ATG]

Jesus asked the Father in Gethsemane whether He could in any way avoid being judged by men to be a heinous sinner, sin incarnate even, falsely accused by men of capital crimes and tortured and murdered by men. And God made Him allow Himself to be judged by men to be a heinous sinner, sin incarnate even, falsely accused of capital crimes by men and tortured and murdered by men.

But Jesus was not judged by God to be a heinous sinner, sin incarnate, nor was he falsely accused by God of capital crimes, nor was He tortured and murdered by God.

Exactly. Sin incarnate is well said.
No one can look at Jesus' body on a cross, who was unjustly executed by wicked hands, and not sin the full 'incarnate' evil of all sinning against God and man.

His body was made sin incarnate for men to see and repent of sinning.

Rom 7:13
Was then that which is good made death unto me? God forbid. But sin, that it might appear sin, working death in me by that which is good; that sin by the commandment might become exceeding sinful.

His body was made a exceeding sinful example by men, but God made Him to be the cause for our own repentance.

This is how “God made him who had no sin to be sin for us, so that in him we might become the righteousness of God” (II Cor. 5:21) is fulfilled.

It certainly wasn't for us to be justified for killing Him. Or worse yet, for God to kill Him for us, that we could be justified while sinning against him.

Rev 2:24
But unto you I say, and unto the rest in Thyatira, as many as have not this doctrine, and which have not known the depths of Satan, that they speak;

 

[OMC]

This is not my quote, but a misquote:

"Only sinful men esteemed Jesus guilty of blaspemy, and smote Him against the law."

"It's only sinful men that did those vile things to Jesus, not God the Father:"

"Only sinful men oppressed, struck, and smote the Son on a cross as a blasphemer. Only unbelieving men say He was accursed of God as by law."


Now a misquote from Scripture:

Isa 53:11
He shall see of the travail of his soul, and shall be satisfied: by his knowledge shall my righteous servant justify many; for he shall bear their iniquities.

In any case, I certainly accept the appearance of contradiction, since it's the Scriptures that appear to contradict themselves.

You (alone so far) are at least trying to acknowledge the truth of Is 53:4, but then fail to accept it as written, and so produce a contradiction to teach what's written:

Isa 53:34:
He is despised and rejected of men; a man of sorrows, and acquainted with grief: and we hid as it were our faces from him; he was despised, and we esteemed him not. Surely he hath borne our griefs, and carried our sorrows: yet we did esteem him stricken, smitten of God, and afflicted.

Who is it here, that the prophecy of Scripture says will impute Jesus Christ with sin, and esteem Him smitten of God on the cross. God and man? No. God or man? Man, not God. And if man, not God, then man alone...

Isaiah{50:5}
The Lord GOD hath opened mine ear, and I was not rebellious, neither turned away back. I gave my back to the smiters, and my cheeks to them that plucked off the hair: I hid not my face from shame and spitting.

Psa 22:16
For dogs have compassed me: the assembly of the wicked have inclosed me: they pierced my hands and my feet.

Psa 22:16
For dogs have compassed me: the assembly of the wicked have inclosed me: they pierced my hands and my feet.

Act 2:23
Him, being delivered by the determinate counsel and foreknowledge of God, ye have taken, and by wicked hands have crucified and slain:

Who is it here that fulilled prophecy of Scripture by doing such evil things to Jesus the righteous? the righteous God and sinful men? No. The righteous God or sinful men? Sinful men alone without God.

Therefore, all Scripture pertaining to the accusation, condemnation, suffering, and death of Jesus Christ, must be rightely interpreted by this simple fact: Only sinful men wrongly imputed and did those things to Him, and unjustly esteemed Him guilty and smitten of God.

Will anyone deny it? Will anyone say that sinful men did not impute, esteem, and do those vile things to Jesus? Who would say God Immanuel was with men, when doing those things, and were not alone? Except we first reject the truth of Is 53:3, which leads to proper reading of written things to follow.

You’re arguing that Isaiah 53 presents a single perspective — human estimation — and therefore any divine action language must be reinterpreted as human accusation, but Isaiah himself refuses that collapse; the text gives two perspectives, not one: men “esteemed Him stricken, smitten of God, and afflicted” (53:4), but God says what actually happened in 53:6 and 53:10–12.
Your correction of my wording (“made Him bear”) is noted — the verb is future (“he shall bear”), but the point remains:
Isaiah attributes the bearing of iniquity to the Servant as God’s declared purpose, not man’s accusation.
You keep treating “bear their iniquities” as if it means “men accused Him of iniquity,” but Isaiah never uses nasaʾ that way; accusation is expressed by esteeming, not bearing.
Esteeming is human misjudgment (53:4); bearing is sacrificial load‑bearing (53:11–12).
You correctly show that only sinful men condemned, pierced, smote, spat, plucked, and crucified Him (Isa 50:6; Ps 22:16; Acts 2:23), but that does not erase Isaiah’s contrast — it reinforces it: men performed wicked acts, while God performed the atonement act.
The contradiction you see is not in Scripture but in your merger of two categories Isaiah keeps separate: human estimation (53:3–4) and divine intention (53:6, 10–12).

 

[ScooterJackson]

Exactly.

Which is why some reject Is 53:3-4, in order to continue believing a lie about 2 Cor 5:21 and Is 53:6, etc...

Which is also why they avoid the plain teaching of Is 53:3, in order to continue misreading 2 Cor 5:21 and Is 53:6 for a lie.

If they reject the Lord Jesus being the Lamb of God, then looks like torment in hell is in their future