No you want me to look at what your argument is, post it here to me.
I already thoroughly explained my argument in post #4,547 but I will post it here for you.
I like how the Amplified reads - For if we
go on deliberately and willingly sinning after once acquiring the knowledge of the Truth, there is no longer any sacrifice left to atone for [our] sins [no further offering to which to look forward].
The present tense indicates this is their lifestyle, their habitual practice. It describes an abiding state of willful, deliberate sinning. Those who are born of God are not sinless, without fault or defect, flawless, 100% of the time, but sinning is
not their willful, habitual, continual practice once they are born again. *1 John 3:9 -
No one who is born of God practices sin.. Believers become new creations in Christ "the old things have passed away behold and new things have come." (2 Corinthians 5:17)
Although the writer includes himself in this warning
(if we sin willfully) note that he switches pronouns in Hebrews 10:29 to
"he" and at the end of the chapter (Hebrews 10:39) the writer makes it clear that he considers himself a true believer by including himself in the
"we" who do not "draw back to perdition." But
we are not of those who draw back to perdition, but of those who believe to the saving of the soul. Those who
draw back to perdition do not believe to the saving of the soul and those who
believe to the saving of the soul do not draw back to perdition. NOWHERE does the Bible us the words, "lose salvation." For further study see -
https://www.preceptaustin.org/hebrews_1026-27
Sanctified in Hebrews 10:29 is not the same as sanctified in Hebrews 10:14.
The one proves eternal (Hebrews 10:14) and
the other proves guilty of apostasy (Hebrews 10:29). So once again, the writer of Hebrews in verse 10 said
"sanctified through the offering of the body of Jesus Christ
once for all" (Hebrews 10:10) and in verse 14, we read,
"perfected for all time those who are sanctified." (Hebrews 10:14) So even though the reference to "the blood of the covenant that sanctified him" in verse 29 "on the surface" appears to be referring to a genuine Christian, this overlooks the fact that the word translated "sanctified" (which is the verb form of the adjective "holy") which means "set apart," and doesn't necessarily refer to salvation.
*In 1 Corinthians 7:14, Paul uses it to specifically refer to non-Christians who are
"sanctified" or "set apart" by their believing spouse
(and by this Paul does not mean that they are saved). A non-Christian can be "set apart" from other non-Christians without experiencing salvation as Paul explained. So the word "sanctified" means to be "set apart." If the word "sanctified" simply meant saved, then you would have to say that the seventh day was saved (Genesis 2:3), the tabernacle was saved (Exodus 29:43), Moses saved the people after coming down off the mountain (Exodus 19:14), the priests and the Levites saved themselves (1 Chronicles 15:14), the Father saved the Son (John 10:36), the Son saved Himself (John 17:19) and many other things that do not line up with scripture.
In verse 39, the writer of Hebrews sets up the
CONTRAST that
makes it clear to me that he was referring to unbelievers, not saved people: But
WE are not OF THOSE who draw back to perdition, BUT OF THOSE who believe to the saving of the soul. Those who
draw back to perdition do not believe to the saving of the soul and those who
believe to the saving of the soul do not draw back to perdition.
So after considering the
CONTEXT, it seems most likely that "he was sanctified" should be understood in the sense of someone who had been "set apart" as a participant in the Christian community of Hebrews believers, but then renounces his identification with other believers, by rejecting the "knowledge of the truth" that he had received, and trampling under foot the work and the person of Christ himself. This gives evidence that his identification with the Hebrew Christian community of believers was only superficial and that he was not a genuine believer. For further study see -
https://www.preceptaustin.org/hebrews_1028-29
I find it interesting that the KJV reads - ..but if
any man draw back, my soul shall have no pleasure in him. The NKJV reads - ..if
anyone draws back, My soul has no pleasure in him.” The NIV reads - And I take no pleasure in
the one who shrinks back. Even if the "he" mentioned in relation to the shrinking back is the "righteous one" regardless, the first clause is
clarified by the second clause in verse 39 - But
"we" are not of those who draw back to perdition, but
of those who believe to the saving of the soul. 
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