Is it wise to build a belief, a doctrine on one verse of Scripture.
I believe it is unwise because so many verses are misunderstood by many.
I believe it is unwise because so many verses are misunderstood by many.
One verse
- Thread starter DRobinson
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Not usually, but…
Genesis 1:1 In the beginning God created the heaven and the earth.
Acts 17:24
The God who made the world and everything in it is the Lord of heaven and earth and does not live in temples made by human hands.
Hebrews 1:10
And: "In the beginning, O Lord, You laid the foundations of the earth, and the heavens are the work of Your hands.
Hebrews 11:3
By faith we understand that the universe was formed at God's command,
so that what is seen was not made out of what was visible.
Revelation 4:11
"Worthy are You, our Lord and God, to receive glory and honor and power,
for You created all things; by Your will they exist and came to be."
Nehemiah 9:6
You alone are the LORD. You created the heavens, the highest heavens with all their host, the earth and all
that is on it, the seas and all that is in them. You give life to all things, and the host of heaven worships You.
This verse shouldn't be misunderstood by anyone . . .
John 14:6
6 Jesus saith unto him, I am the way, the truth, and the life: no man cometh unto the Father, but by me. ~KJV
Nope. Not real wise.
But why do that, when we have the entire Bible at our fingertips? = )
[I see many people making this very claim, however, about "our Rapture [IN THE AIR]," mistakenly claiming that 1Th4:17 is the ONLY place Paul spoke of it... not realizing that Paul actually spoke of this concept something like EIGHT TIMES (using various terms and phrases) throughout his TWO epistles to the Thessalonians...and that's just THOSE two epistles... he wrote of it elsewhere also
; and I see many, when pointing out the facts of what 1Th4:17 actually states, fail to take notice that it is placed in the CONTEXT of what 3:13 had just stated, and thus miss its full import (thinking the verse [v.17] has only to do with comforting believers as to where their believing-loved-ones-who've-DIED are, presently; but that is not the extent of what is actually being covered in this FULL CONTEXT, or even just in v.17... or vv.14-17 even)]
Correct - a doctrine should not be built on one verse . . .
Yet every verse needs to be understood and interpreted correctly: that is = do not avoid verses and not teach them because they "seem" to be difficult or inflammatory or contradictory.
Every verse is truth and is profitable for doctrine.
Yet every verse needs to be understood and interpreted correctly: that is = do not avoid verses and not teach them because they "seem" to be difficult or inflammatory or contradictory.
Every verse is truth and is profitable for doctrine.
For sure, and there are many more. But one verse as Genesis 1:1 should be enough to settle the doctrine of creation. I thought that is what this thread was about.
yeah most often if we read a chapter or paragraph the single verses make sense but when we remove them from what’s being said they can be a manipulated to mean what they don’t actually mean
especially with the New Testament epistles those writings are explaining things they aren’t bringing up new mysteries but those are what’s explaining the mystery from the ot so we want to just learn what’s being taught to n the chapters and full letters then those single verses don’t leave us saying “ what does this verse mean if we remove it from its context ? “ we’re removing it from what’s explaining what it means when we do that
Doc·trine
/ˈdäktrən/
noun
There is also the fact that people require more than one appearance in Scripture of an act of Jesus for it to be considered Doctrine. One glaring example of this is:
John, Chapter 13:
4He riseth from supper, and laid aside his garments; and took a towel, and girded himself.
5After that he poureth water into a bason, and began to wash the disciples' feet, and to wipe them with the towel wherewith he was girded.
6Then cometh he to Simon Peter: and Peter saith unto him, Lord, dost thou wash my feet?
7Jesus answered and said unto him, What I do thou knowest not now; but thou shalt know hereafter.
8Peter saith unto him, Thou shalt never wash my feet. Jesus answered him, If I wash thee not, thou hast no part with me.
12So after he had washed their feet, and had taken his garments, and was set down again, he said unto them, Know ye what I have done to you?
13Ye call me Master and Lord: and ye say well; for so I am.
14If I then, your Lord and Master, have washed your feet; ye also ought to wash one another's feet.
15For I have given you an example, that ye should do as I have done to you.
How many professed believers are obedient to the "example" Jesus gave the Disciples? Far, far to few sadly...
Water baptism was an "example" Jesus gave us,
Celebration of Communion was an "example" that Jesus gave us.
Yet, because feet washing only appears in the Gospel of John, the majority of professed believers ignore this "example" given to the Church. How sad.
/ˈdäktrən/
noun
- 1.a belief or set of beliefs held and taught by a Church, political party, or other group:
There is also the fact that people require more than one appearance in Scripture of an act of Jesus for it to be considered Doctrine. One glaring example of this is:
John, Chapter 13:
4He riseth from supper, and laid aside his garments; and took a towel, and girded himself.
5After that he poureth water into a bason, and began to wash the disciples' feet, and to wipe them with the towel wherewith he was girded.
6Then cometh he to Simon Peter: and Peter saith unto him, Lord, dost thou wash my feet?
7Jesus answered and said unto him, What I do thou knowest not now; but thou shalt know hereafter.
8Peter saith unto him, Thou shalt never wash my feet. Jesus answered him, If I wash thee not, thou hast no part with me.
12So after he had washed their feet, and had taken his garments, and was set down again, he said unto them, Know ye what I have done to you?
13Ye call me Master and Lord: and ye say well; for so I am.
14If I then, your Lord and Master, have washed your feet; ye also ought to wash one another's feet.
15For I have given you an example, that ye should do as I have done to you.
How many professed believers are obedient to the "example" Jesus gave the Disciples? Far, far to few sadly...
Water baptism was an "example" Jesus gave us,
Celebration of Communion was an "example" that Jesus gave us.
Yet, because feet washing only appears in the Gospel of John, the majority of professed believers ignore this "example" given to the Church. How sad.
Since you brought this up-------Nope. Not real wise.
But why do that, when we have the entire Bible at our fingertips? = )
[I see many people making this very claim, however, about "our Rapture [IN THE AIR]," mistakenly claiming that 1Th4:17 is the ONLY place Paul spoke of it... not realizing that Paul actually spoke of this concept something like EIGHT TIMES (using various terms and phrases) throughout his TWO epistles to the Thessalonians...and that's just THOSE two epistles... he wrote of it elsewhere also
Show us the verses (at least 2 or 3) that state the entire 70th week Daniel spook of, is yet to come.
Prime example:
'Where two or three are gathered, there I am in the midst of them'-- from Jesus
So. .many christians take this to mean.. two or three believers gathered in any situation.. then Jesus is there in the midst.
But the context is of dealing with a sinning brother. Matthew 18 is about the process for resolving sin issues in the church. It's a New Testament version of what happened in Deuteronomy for the process of discipline for Israel gathered in the wilderness.
So 'where two or three are gathered, there I am in the midst of them' .. is of two or three church members gathered to resolve sin issues with a fellow member. That is the context.
There is also application for two or three gathered as a church assembly.. not just for resolving sin issues.. but the primary application is this.
It is most unwise. A doctrine must be based upon every verse that pertains to it (directly or indirectly). But that requires hard work. The easy route is to take one verse or passage and ignore everything else.
A good example is taking Ecclesiastes 9:5 and ignoring everything else about the afterlife. For the living know that they shall die: but the dead know not any thing, neither have they any more a reward; for the memory of them is forgotten. None of this is true. As we know from the narrative of the Rich Man and Lazarus the dead do know much. As we know from other passages there are rewards in the afterlife. And as we know from Hebrews 11 (and other passages), their memory is not forgotten.
Matthew 24:15 should suffice. Christ was speaking about a future temple and a future Holy Place and the setting up of the Abomination of Desolation. This abominable idol is set up in the middle of the 70th week (Dan 9:27). And he [the Antichrist] shall confirm the covenant with many for one week [a heptad of 7 years]: and in the midst of the week [after 3 1/2 years] he shall cause the sacrifice and the oblation to cease, and for the overspreading of abominations he shall make it desolate [the Abomination of Desolation set up], even until the consummation, and that determined shall be poured upon the desolate.
Yea.. so the other application is with the Holy Spirit being 'in the midst' of a NT church assembly. So a Christian rock concert...ain't no church. A Christian social club..ain't no church. It's a special kind of 'in the midst' presence, rather than applied to any two or three believers gathered for any purpose.
So is Christ. He is within, above, and beside all believers all the time, especially when they meet for worship. The letters to the seven churches confirm that Christ is present in every church.
Yea. This is where I take issue with people separating Jesus, the Holy Spirit and the Father out ..because you see cases like this where it is not only the Holy Spirit but Jesus 'in the midst' .
Your statement just confirmed my belief that a doctrine is based on one Scripture.
The pronoun "he" used three times in Daniel is not the "antichrist".
He refers back to the Messiah, the Prince in verse 25 who would be crucified after threescore and two weeks, verse 26.
His crucifixion confirmed "the covenant" promised by God in Jeremiah 31 as stated in Hebrews.
This cause the sacrifices to cease (put an end to, removed)
The "antichrist" is not mentioned in Daniel 9.
The people of the "prince" in verse 26 is not the "antichrist" but the army of the Emperor of Rome who destroyed Jerusalem and the temple in 70 AD.
The three and a half ministry of Jesus was the first half of the 70th week and the 1260 days of the man of sin's rule is the second half of the 70th week as revealed in Daniel 12.
I know you and most will disagree and continue to place your own interpretation on Daniel 9:27 because it fits your belief and even try to prove it with Matthew 24:15.
I will not debate this with you because it would be a waste of time.
I am still waiting for someone to give me 2 or 3 Scriptures that prove all the 70th week is still future.
I agree it's not wise but many Church denominations are divided over the meaning of; John 3:16 For God so loved the world, that he gave his only begotten Son, that whosoever believeth in him should not perish, but have everlasting life.
This is the most controversial verse in the entire Bible. It can be approached from many different angles, so the Church is divided by the various interpretations and how it should be applied.