Philippians 2:6 ?

[Joelightening]

There are basically 2 translations of Philippians 2:6.
The older translations, including the KJV and the Vulgate translate, "Who being in the form of God, thought it not robbery to be equal with God."

The ESV translates, " Who though he was in the form of God, did not count equality with God a thing to be grasp."

The original NIV had the same translation as the ESV. The updated NIV, 2011 version changed to something a little different. The NIV translation committee stated that during the original translation, they were not sure how it should be translated.

Does anyone have any information as to how the Greek should be translated? The Greek harpagmon is only in the Greek Bible here in this one verse.

I believe the KJV and the Vulgate and others got it right. An early Church leader named Novatian quoted that verse around 250AD exactly as it is in the KJV.

I've done the homework on this one, but thought some of you may have more information.
Thanks!

 

[Roughsoul1991]

There are basically 2 translations of Philippians 2:6.
The older translations, including the KJV and the Vulgate translate, "Who being in the form of God, thought it not robbery to be equal with God."

The ESV translates, " Who though he was in the form of God, did not count equality with God a thing to be grasp."

The original NIV had the same translation as the ESV. The updated NIV, 2011 version changed to something a little different. The NIV translation committee stated that during the original translation, they were not sure how it should be translated.

Does anyone have any information as to how the Greek should be translated? The Greek harpagmon is only in the Greek Bible here in this one verse.

I believe the KJV and the Vulgate and others got it right. An early Church leader named Novatian quoted that verse around 250AD exactly as it is in the KJV.

I've done the homework on this one, but thought some of you may have more information.
Thanks!

How do you interpret the KJV version?

 

[Joelightening]

It is best not to interpret, but study and let the Lord lead into all truth. I am not a KJV only person, but in the above mentioned case, the KJV got it right.

 

[cv5]

There are basically 2 translations of Philippians 2:6.
The older translations, including the KJV and the Vulgate translate, "Who being in the form of God, thought it not robbery to be equal with God."

The ESV translates, " Who though he was in the form of God, did not count equality with God a thing to be grasp."

The original NIV had the same translation as the ESV. The updated NIV, 2011 version changed to something a little different. The NIV translation committee stated that during the original translation, they were not sure how it should be translated.

Does anyone have any information as to how the Greek should be translated? The Greek harpagmon is only in the Greek Bible here in this one verse.

I believe the KJV and the Vulgate and others got it right. An early Church leader named Novatian quoted that verse around 250AD exactly as it is in the KJV.

I've done the homework on this one, but thought some of you may have more information.
Thanks!

ESV is pretty awful thru and thru......

 

[Roughsoul1991]

It is best not to interpret, but study and let the Lord lead into all truth. I am not a KJV only person, but in the above mentioned case, the KJV got it right.

If you had to explain this verse to a new believer, how would you?

 

[Roughsoul1991]

ESV is pretty awful thru and thru......

Love the ESV....

 

[Joelightening]

If you had to explain this verse to a new believer, how would you?

I would explain that Christ was in the form of God. As in the gospel of John, "In the beginning was the Word and the Word was with God and the Word was God." It is evident that he thought it not robbery to be equal with God, for he said, "Before Abraham was I AM."

We then read the next two verses and understand the Christ humbled himself and took on the form of a servant as a man.

My main support for the translation of the KJV is that harpagmon has the meaning of taking another's property by force. Also that around 250AD this text was written in Latin and matches the translation of the KJV.

I too am fond of the ESV. I have the English - Greek Interlinear with the ESV. We should however study with carefulness and consult several translations.

 

[cv5]

Love the ESV....

You will grow out of it bro. Give it time.....

 

[Nehemiah6]

I believe the KJV and the Vulgate and others got it right.

Stick with this. Christ thought it not robbery to be equal with God because He is in fact God. But He laid aside His glory and majesty and took the form of a Servant.

 

[Nehemiah6]

How do you interpret the KJV version?

This passage is not rocket science.

CHRISTIANS MUST ADOPT THE SAME MIND AS CHRIST AS NOTED BELOW
5 Let this mind be in you, which was also in Christ Jesus:

CHRIST (THE WORD OF GOD) IS EQUALLY GOD WITH GOD THE FATHER
6 Who, being in the form of God, thought it not robbery to be equal with God:

CHRIST TOOK THE FORM OF A SERVANT FOR OUR SALVATION
7 But made himself of no reputation, and took upon him the form of a servant, and was made in the likeness of men:

CHRIST HUMBLED HUMSELF AND BECAME OBEDIENT UNTO DEATH
8 And being found in fashion as a man, he humbled himself, and became obedient unto death, even the death of the cross.

 

[Roughsoul1991]

There are basically 2 translations of Philippians 2:6.
The older translations, including the KJV and the Vulgate translate, "Who being in the form of God, thought it not robbery to be equal with God."

The ESV translates, " Who though he was in the form of God, did not count equality with God a thing to be grasp."

The original NIV had the same translation as the ESV. The updated NIV, 2011 version changed to something a little different. The NIV translation committee stated that during the original translation, they were not sure how it should be translated.

Does anyone have any information as to how the Greek should be translated? The Greek harpagmon is only in the Greek Bible here in this one verse.

I believe the KJV and the Vulgate and others got it right. An early Church leader named Novatian quoted that verse around 250AD exactly as it is in the KJV.

I've done the homework on this one, but thought some of you may have more information.
Thanks!

I agree.

But using modern trabslations we have to look at the footnotes as well due to the fact of textual criticism brought about during the Itialian Renaissance when the Greek language would be rediscovered by Eastern Europe.

The ESV has the foundation of the KJV but uses textual criticism.


Philippians 2:6
English Standard Version

6 who, though he was in the form of God, did not count equality with God a thing to be grasped,[a]

Footnotes

1. Philippians 2:6 Or a thing to be held on to for advantage

Hebrews 2:9
King James Version

9 But we see Jesus, who was made a little lower than the angels for the suffering of death, crowned with glory and honour; that he by the grace of God should taste death for every man.

We know that Jesus being fully God did in fact lower Himself to some degree which he would late be crowned with glory.

Jesus was fully God but His life on Earth was lowered beneath the angels so that He may also be fully human. His human nature is why we see Him praying to the Father and showing us the perfect humanly example of God follower.

Was Jesus equal in human form? Did He sacrifice His place in Heaven for a little while to be born as a human child and experience the human life? What advantage did He give up? If Jesus had not came in the flesh and lowered himself to be fully human while being fully God within the incarnation then we as humans would have never been given a perfect sacrifice. That is why He had to limit the advantage, become lower than the angels, become human, so that God inarnate could take our place in the atonement for sin as a perfect human sacrifice only achieved by the perfect holy nature of God.

 

[Roughsoul1991]

This passage is not rocket science.

CHRISTIANS MUST ADOPT THE SAME MIND AS CHRIST AS NOTED BELOW
5 Let this mind be in you, which was also in Christ Jesus:

CHRIST (THE WORD OF GOD) IS EQUALLY GOD WITH GOD THE FATHER
6 Who, being in the form of God, thought it not robbery to be equal with God:

CHRIST TOOK THE FORM OF A SERVANT FOR OUR SALVATION
7 But made himself of no reputation, and took upon him the form of a servant, and was made in the likeness of men:

CHRIST HUMBLED HUMSELF AND BECAME OBEDIENT UNTO DEATH
8 And being found in fashion as a man, he humbled himself, and became obedient unto death, even the death of the cross.

I was asking him to explain his thinking.

Anyway, if you try to teach others it is best to not use condescending language like this,

This passage is not rocket science

.

 

[MessengerofTruth]

Philippians 2:6 Or a thing to be held on to for advantage

6 who, though he was in the form of God, did not count equality with God a thing to be grasped,[a]

 

[cv5]

I agree.

But using modern trabslations we have to look at the footnotes as well due to the fact of textual criticism brought about during the Itialian Renaissance when the Greek language would be rediscovered by Eastern Europe.

The ESV has the foundation of the KJV but uses textual criticism.


Philippians 2:6
English Standard Version

6 who, though he was in the form of God, did not count equality with God a thing to be grasped,[a]

Footnotes

1. Philippians 2:6 Or a thing to be held on to for advantage

Hebrews 2:9
King James Version

9 But we see Jesus, who was made a little lower than the angels for the suffering of death, crowned with glory and honour; that he by the grace of God should taste death for every man.

We know that Jesus being fully God did in fact lower Himself to some degree which he would late be crowned with glory.

Jesus was fully God but His life on Earth was lowered beneath the angels so that He may also be fully human. His human nature is why we see Him praying to the Father and showing us the perfect humanly example of God follower.

Was Jesus equal in human form? Did He sacrifice His place in Heaven for a little while to be born as a human child and experience the human life? What advantage did He give up? If Jesus had not came in the flesh and lowered himself to be fully human while being fully God within the incarnation then we as humans would have never been given a perfect sacrifice. That is why He had to limit the advantage, become lower than the angels, become human, so that God inarnate could take our place in the atonement for sin as a perfect human sacrifice only achieved by the perfect holy nature of God.

"Alexandrian or Egyptian type of text.....they are found in the Critical Text published in the twenty-eighth edition of the Nestle-Aland Greek New Testament (N) and in the United Bible Societies' third edition (U), hence the acronym "NU-Text.""

Thats the main problem with the ESV. The contentions, issues and blunders were found to be so serious that I never use the ESV anymore. Bye bye. And hello KJV.

 

[Joelightening]

It is my goal to study and know the true scriptures and not so much as to declare which is the best edition of the Bible.

Another point is that Jerome had many textual resources and translated as he did. Novatian would also have had resources, some perhaps very close to the original. Latin and Greek were widely used in the Eastern Mediterranean in the year 250AD. There would have been many who could clarify the Greek into Latin.

Thanks to all who commented here. If you know of any other textual proofs not already stated, please post that.

 

[Nehemiah6]

Does anyone have any information as to how the Greek should be translated? The Greek harpagmon is only in the Greek Bible here in this one verse.

ὃς ἐν μορφῇ Θεοῦ ὑπάρχων, οὐχ ἁρπαγμὸν* ἡγήσατο τὸ εἶναι ἴσα Θεῷ... This commentary presents the correct interpretation.

JAMIESON-FAUSSET-BROWN COMMENTARY
But the antithesis is not between His being on an equality with God, and His emptying Himself; for He never emptied Himself of the fulness of His Godhead, or His "BEING on an equality with God"; but between His being "in the FORM (that is, the outward glorious self-manifestation) of God," and His "taking on Him the form of a servant," whereby He in a great measure emptied Himself of His precedent "form," or outward self-manifesting glory as God.

Not "looking on His own things" (Php 2:4), He, though existing in the form of God, He esteemed it no robbery to be on an equality with God, yet made Himself of no reputation. "Being on an equality with God, is not identical with subsisting in the form of God"; the latter expresses the external characteristics, majesty, and beauty of the Deity, which "He emptied Himself of," to assume "the form of a servant"; the former, "His being," or NATURE, His already existing STATE OF EQUALITY with God, both the Father and the Son having the same ESSENCE. A glimpse of Him "in the form of God," previous to His incarnation, was given to Moses (Ex 24:10, 11), Aaron, &c.

 

[Roughsoul1991]

"Alexandrian or Egyptian type of text.....they are found in the Critical Text published in the twenty-eighth edition of the Nestle-Aland Greek New Testament (N) and in the United Bible Societies' third edition (U), hence the acronym "NU-Text.""

Thats the main problem with the ESV. The contentions, issues and blunders were found to be so serious that I never use the ESV anymore. Bye bye. And hello KJV.

Kjv has it's issues too so really the best practice is to study multiple translation in comparison to the interlinear Hebrew/Greek. Many scholars worked on the ESV and like the KJV it follows a word-for-word translation which is great. The Latin manuscripts had many errors as to what led to the Reformation due to textual criticism and the relearning of Greek.

 

[Webers.Home]

.
When the Word of John 1:1 came into the world as the flesh of John 1:14,
he came as a Jewish man instead of a divine man.

Nor did the Word come into the world as a demigod; which is a singularity
consisting of half human and half deity.

The Word of John 1:1, and the flesh that the Word became in John 1:14--
though joined at the hip, so to speak --are two separate and distinct
individuals each with an identity of their own. The one is an eternal spirit
being whose origin is currently unknown, and the other is a temporal
material being whose biological origin can be easily traced to David and from
thence to the very dust with which Adam was constructed. In other words:
the flesh of John 1:14 came into the world as a creature of design.

FAQ: Why are so many folks confused about Jesus' status?

REPLY: Because the information is privileged.

● Matt 11:2 . . No man knoweth the Son, but the Father; neither knoweth
any man the Father, save the Son, and he to whomsoever the Son will
reveal him.
_

 

[Joelightening]

Philip W. Comforts book entitled ' New Testament Text and Translation Commentary' does not have a textural variant for Philippians 2:6. That is a good book for studying textural issues.

 

[cv5]

Kjv has it's issues too so really the best practice is to study multiple translation in comparison to the interlinear Hebrew/Greek. Many scholars worked on the ESV and like the KJV it follows a word-for-word translation which is great. The Latin manuscripts had many errors as to what led to the Reformation due to textual criticism and the relearning of Greek.

Don't get me wrong.....I use other translations all the time. Even going as far back as the Wycliffe and Tyndale bibles.
I also use YLT and BLB and much more.

But NIV and ESV and similar I rarely use anymore. A lot has to do with technical errors like Acts 13:20 wording. Just saying bro.