Reconciled to God while enemies !

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I understand Paul's point about what Christ did. But you don't understand that actual reconciliation isn't accomplished until a person repents.
Thats why Christ gives repentance to them He died for, that complements the fact He has reconciled them to God Acts 5:31

31 Him hath God exalted with his right hand to be a Prince and a Saviour, for to give repentance to Israel, and forgiveness of sins.
 
False, thats conditional forgiveness based on mans actions, thats against Forgiveness and reconciliation by Christ Christs blood and death.
Yes, that is conditional forgiveness. The bible doesn't teach unconditional forgiveness.
 
Absolutely false and a attack on Christs Death accomplishment Rom 5:10
My view is not an attack on Christ's death. Unless you can show me that I have ACTUALLY attacked Christ's death, then your claim is empty.

On the other hand, I have given you good reasons why your interpretation is in error.

  • You and I were not alive when Jesus died on the cross, so it makes no sense to say that he died while WE were his enemies.
  • Reconciliation is not one sided. Both parties must cease hostilities for reconciliation to take place.
These fatal flaws tell you that you need to rethink your interpretation of Romans 5:10
 
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Thats why Christ gives repentance to them He died for, that complements the fact He has reconciled them to God Acts 5:31

31 Him hath God exalted with his right hand to be a Prince and a Saviour, for to give repentance to Israel, and forgiveness of sins.
God grants repentance through Jesus because Jesus’ death, resurrection, and exaltation create the very conditions in which repentance becomes possible. In Acts 5:31, Luke’s point is that God has installed Jesus at His right hand as Leader and Savior precisely so that Israel may now turn back to Him. Repentance is not a human achievement that climbs up to God; it is a divine gift that comes down through Christ’s finished work. Jesus is the basis because His atonement removes the barrier of guilt, and He is the means because His exaltation sends the Spirit who convicts, awakens, and enables the heart to turn.

At the same time, repentance remains a genuinely human act. God does not repent for Israel; He grants the opportunity, summons, and power to repent. This is why the apostles can preach, “Repent,” while also declaring that God “gives repentance.” The human turning is real, but it is only possible because Christ has opened the way and the Spirit presses the truth into the conscience. In biblical thought, God “gives” what He authorizes, empowers, and makes effectual. Thus, repentance is both commanded and gifted — a divine initiative that calls forth a human response.

So when Acts says God “gave repentance to Israel,” it means that in Jesus’ exaltation God has inaugurated a new era in which repentance is now a graced possibility. Jesus is the mediator who makes repentance meaningful (because forgiveness is now grounded), possible (because the Spirit convicts), and urgent (because the risen Christ now reigns). Repentance is therefore not merely a moral decision but a Christ‑enabled turning — a human act rooted in divine generosity.
 
The Lord forgave his entire debt. But when the Slave wouldn't forgive his fellow slave, the Lord revokes the forgiveness he had extended.

Where do you read that his lord revoked the forgiveness that he had given the servant for that debt?
 
God grants repentance through Jesus because Jesus’ death, resurrection, and exaltation create the very conditions in which repentance becomes possible. In Acts 5:31
More heresy ! Repentance made possible ? Thats an attack on Christ that gives repentance, He was exalted to do that Acts 5:31

31 Him hath God exalted with his right hand to be a Prince and a Saviour, for to give repentance to Israel, and forgiveness of sins.

These things were conditioned on Christs Death and Exaltation
 
So when Acts says God “gave repentance to Israel,” it means that in Jesus’ exaltation God has inaugurated a new era in which repentance is now a graced possibility.
False. The giving of repentance is causative of repentance by whom its given. Give is the greek word didómi: To give, to grant, to bestow

b. the noun denotes something to be done by him to whom it is said to be given: διδόναι τίνι μετάνοιαν, to cause him to repent, Acts 5:31; Acts 11:18; https://biblehub.com/greek/1325.htm
 
Give is the greek word didómi: To give, to grant, to bestow

b. the noun denotes something to be done by him to whom it is said to be given: διδόναι τίνι μετάνοιαν, to cause him to repent, Acts 5:31; Acts 11:18; https://biblehub.com/greek/1325.htm
why do you ignore this part of the definition?

b. the noun denotes
something to be done by him to whom it is said to be given: διδόναι τίνι μετάνοιαν, to cause him to repent, Acts 5:31; Acts 11:18; https://biblehub.com/greek/1325.htm

.
 
Where do you read that his lord revoked the forgiveness that he had given the servant for that debt?
Matthew 18:34

Listen to the Lord's reasoning. The Lord turns the slave over to the torturers because the slave was not willing to have mercy on his fellow slaves. The issue is not an accounting function: It's a relationship function and a reflection of the actual state of the slave's heart.

Understand, the Lord doesn't care about the talents. The Lord cares about the spiritual status of the slave. He knows it is impossible for the slave to pay him back. But the way the Slave treated his brothers is indicative of the idea that the slave doesn't actually care about mercy and justice. If he did, he would have extended mercy to his fellow slaves.
 
You speaking serious heresy
Again, unless you can demonstrate that what I said is against Biblical teaching, then your claim is empty. It's easy for someone to type a few words on the internet. You have confronted a clear teaching of Jesus that contradicts your view. Your best course is to review your work and your interpretations. You might begin with a review of James' letter, where he argues that faith without works is dead.
 
Yes it is. You deny Rom 5:10
I don't deny what Paul wrote. I disagree with your interpretation. Did someone tell you what to believe or did you come to your interpretation by Bible study? If you reasoned things out, then you should be able to present reasons for what you believe and reasons for why my interpretation is wrong. Spend the requisite amount of time to construct a good argument.
 
More heresy ! Repentance made possible ? Thats an attack on Christ that gives repentance, He was exalted to do that Acts 5:31
I disagree. Jesus preached "Repent for the kingdom of God is at hand." Obviously, Jesus can't repent for his audience. That is something they must do themselves.
31 Him hath God exalted with his right hand to be a Prince and a Saviour, for to give repentance to Israel, and forgiveness of sins.

These things were conditioned on Christs Death and Exaltation
No, they are applicable only when a person repents.
 
False. The giving of repentance is causative of repentance by whom its given. Give is the greek word didómi: To give, to grant, to bestow

b. the noun denotes something to be done by him to whom it is said to be given: διδόναι τίνι μετάνοιαν, to cause him to repent, Acts 5:31; Acts 11:18; https://biblehub.com/greek/1325.htm
Obviously God has provided the means by which a person repents, but he doesn't repent for them. They must do that themselves.