Go and warm yourself by the fire with @Cameron143 and @HeIsHereDragon speech.
They want you to "enter their gate".
Go and warm yourself by the fire with @Cameron143 and @HeIsHereDragon speech.
Well Rev. 21 at least belongs to the future.yes, I have considered that.
If Jerusalem's destruction was as significant as Jesus described in Matthew 24, then it is reasonable to ask whether John refers to it somewhere in Revelation.
The question, however, is not whether there is any connection, but whether Revelation is exhausted by that event.
Scripture itself forces me to wrestle with both possibilities.
On one hand, Revelation speaks of a city "where also our Lord was crucified" (Rev. 11:8), and many see clear judgment themes that could relate to Jerusalem.
On the other hand, Revelation also speaks of the beast, the kings of the earth gathered against Christ, Satan's final rebellion, the Great White Throne, the destruction of death itself, and the new heaven and new earth.
Those themes appear to extend beyond the events of AD 70.
So I do not find it strange to ask whether Jerusalem's fall appears in Revelation.
What I find difficult is restricting the entire book to that event when later chapters contain realities that Scripture elsewhere presents as still future.
The real question is not whether John spoke of Jerusalem's destruction at all, but whether that destruction was one part of a larger prophetic picture that ultimately culminates in the final victory of Christ over all His enemies.
Baffoon speech!Well you had better find out where your fantasy falls short of biblical reality.
if someone is truly teaching heresy, expose it from Scripture.Yea, the pharisees made the same accusation against Jesus.
But He is right and so am I because I glorify His doctrine and eschatology.
Not some Gnostic heresy that you are too ignorant to identify.
Or too cowardly to call out and warn others about.
Go and warm yourself by the fire with @Cameron143 and @HeIsHere
They want you to "enter their gate".
Dragon speech.Go and warm yourself by the fire with @Cameron143 and @HeIsHere
They want you to "enter their gate".
I would agree that Revelation 21 is extremely difficult to place anywhere except in the future.Well Rev. 21 at least belongs to the future.
I think that would be hard to argue against.
Yes, 13:9 looks forward to Jesus, as does ch, 14.
Don't ask me to comment too much on ch.14, because it contains metaphor that flummoxes dispensationalist minds, and in some cases my own.
I hope this does not ruffle tour feathers but the early church ( where you claim to get get your doctrine and override verses) was RIFE WITH ERROR.I hope I did not ruffle your feathers with what I said.
"There is a view that the pre trib rapture doctrine began from Margret McDonald's trans channeling experiences."
Of course that is not a Biblical statement, it is a historical rumor.
I do not even know if it is true or not.
My view is that there is a resurrection at the end of the world, but I guess that is a bit different to a "rapture".
I am familiar with Jesus words in the Bible and have not found the pre-trib rapture in them.
You are welcome to share the passage.
Also if you are familiar with any commentaries or written sermons from before the 1830s that preach the pre-trib rapture, that would be an interesting way of debunking the rumor.
I have so far not been able to find any.
I would also add that the Church had to be the second born.Does this help you:
1) The NATION ISRAEL is the POSSESSOR of the New Covenant.
2) We presently reside in the CHURCH AGE.
And let me ask you: do you (like me) uncanny that the RT's and CT's and preterists etc fail to grasp the simple fact that
the New Covenant was prophesied TO ISRAEL waaaaayyyyy back in Jer 31:31?
You know.......long before the rejection of their Messiah and Church age interregnum became a thing?
“Behold, the days come, saith the LORD, that I will make a new covenant with the house of Israel, and with the house of Judah.”
— Jeremiah 31:31 KJV
I have 30K+ posts to your 2K.if someone is truly teaching heresy, expose it from Scripture.
If someone is denying Christ, expose it from Scripture.
If someone is corrupting the gospel, expose it from Scripture.
But simply asserting, "I glorify Christ's doctrine, therefore my opponents are heretics," is not the standard Scripture gives.
The question remains unchanged: what do the Scriptures actually say, and can the charge be proven from the text rather than assumed?
Your answer was a deflection as all answers you give are. Dragon speech.
Dragon, my post count, your post count, and anyone else's post count is completely irrelevant to whether a doctrine is true.I have 30K+ posts to your 2K.
So don't waste your time lecturing me about my lack of posts. Now get back to work hall monitor.
Maybe Jesus Himself is the "last" wine, which is the fulfillment.I would also add that the Church had to be the second born.
In order that Israel comes in last.
I brought up the first miracle of Jesus earlier in opposed, which was added Jewish wedding.
It was declared that the wedding by the host, that he best wine was saved for last, which was directly pointing to the Jewish people. The nation of israel coming in second and "last"
Nope.Maybe Jesus Himself is the "last" wine, which is the fulfillment.
Need to be of careful interpretation.
The miracle at Cana certainly points beyond itself.Nope.
JESUS is the FIRSTFRUITS AND The firstborn.
The wine was made.
Jesus was not created.
In heaven, and heavens dynamics, the last is first and the first is last.
IOW They are interchangeable.
One point of the new covenant is that it is a better covenant.
The wine Jesus made was a better wine.
The Jews coming in last, come into a better covenant.
"You saved the best wine for last"
IOW THE FIRST MIRACLE had to point to the last.
The first miracle had to be at a wedding and wine be the centerpiece, and the first miracle had to have the component of "first vs last"
You mis-interpreted it then warned of mis-interpreting.Maybe Jesus Himself is the "last" wine, which is the fulfillment.
Need to be of careful interpretation.
Very much agreeNope.
JESUS is the FIRSTFRUITS AND The firstborn.
The wine was made.
Jesus was not created.
In heaven, and heavens dynamics, the last is first and the first is last.
IOW They are interchangeable.
One point of the new covenant is that it is a better covenant.
The wine Jesus made was a better wine.
Many jew believers came first. Thanks to mary, Peter, paul.... gentile enter into Jesus covenant. Not to mention the ot saints.The Jews coming in last, come into a better covenant.
Indeed. Jesus the best."You saved the best wine for last"
IOW THE FIRST MIRACLE had to point to the last.
The first miracle had to be at a wedding and wine be the centerpiece, and the first miracle had to have the component of "first vs last"
Jesus himself the bread and wine.You mis-interpreted it then warned of mis-interpreting.
Jesus himself the bread and wine.
Thanks for bringing that up. So, did you understand what Jesus said AFTER He said to eat my flesh and drink my blood?
John 6:63 - It is the spirit that quickeneth; the flesh profiteth nothing: the words that I speak unto you, they are spirit, and they are life.
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Matthew 24 and 25 is concerning the nation of Israel, not the church.I don't see any point to that.
What are you getting at?