A
The answer to your question lies in your answers to my questions here.Elin,
You don't provide a single scripture which actually states that Jesus served as your penal substitute satisfying the wrath of God so you can be forensically counted innocent.
That's a fail.Elin,
You don't provide a single scripture which actually states that Jesus served as your penal substitute satisfying the wrath of God so you can be forensically counted innocent.
Please present an overall consistent and Biblical explanation regarding the questions presented to you here.
Purchase means to buy.
For it to be real, as well as consistent, there must be a payee.
Who was it?
In application of your logic, so how much did the sinners get for the sale?
Actually, the Bible teaches that we are all born in bondage to sin, sold to sin by Adam (Ro 5:12-14).
The wages of sin is death (Ro 6:23).
Sin is transgression of the law (1Jn 3:4).
There was no law to transgress between Adam and Moses, and yet all mankind died (v.14).
Their death means they were guilty of sin (v.12).
But sin is not taken into account when there is no law (v.13).
So what sin were they guilty of that caused their death?
The death of mankind was caused by the transgression of one man, of which transgression
all mankind was held guilty (Ro 5:15), which is why all mankind died even though sin was not
taken into account to cause their death.
All mankind is born in bondage to sin by their descent from Adam, who sold them to sin (Ro 7:14).
Men did not sell themselves into bondage to sin. Mankind inherited their bondage to sin from Adam,
caused by his transgression of the law, "Thou shalt not eat of it."
Therefore, all mankind is by their sinful nature born an object of God's wrath (Eph 2:3).
Agreed.
It says, "to demonstrate God's justice at the present time," which is the NT.
"God presented him as a sacrifice of atonement, through faith in his blood. He did this
to demonstrate his justice. . .at the present time." (Ro 3:25-26).
God, himself, in presenting Jesus as a sacrifice of propitiation, was demonstrating his justice
on the sins of the present time, which is the NT.
However, that satisfaction of God's justice by Jesus on the cross, which then makes it possible
for God to justly forigve sin, is acccessed only by faith in Jesus Christ.
There is no forgiveness of anyone's sin apart from, and until they come to, faith in Jesus Christ.
Firstly, you do not correctly understand substitutionary penal atonement.
Secondly, logic is not the arbiter of divine revelation and truth.
Agreed.
But your understanding is incomplete. Let's prosecute its meaning.
What passed over the first born?
God's judgment/punishment of death on all the first born in Egypt, including the animals.
So in parallel, what passed over the believrs' sins in the OT?
God's judgment/punishment of eternal death on their sin at the final judgment.
What caused God to pass over the first born Israelites with his judgment/punishment?
The blood of the lamb in Eqypt applied to their door posts.
So in parallel, what caused God to pass over the believers' sins of the OT?
The blood of the Lamb on Calvary, to be shed in the future.
Anb what causes God to pass over the believers' sins in the NT?
The blood of the Lamb on Calvary, already shed in the past.
But for God's judgment to pass over the first born Israelites, the blood of the lamb
not only had to be shed, it also had to be applied to the doorposts.
So how is the blood of the Lamb on Calvary applied to us?
By grace, through faith in Jesus Christ.
So yes, God's judgment passes over our sin because of the blood of the Lamb shed on Calvary,
which is applied to our sin by grace, through faith in Jesus Christ.
Not so.
The Greek word hilasterion used in Ro 3:25 means "propitiatory," "satisfaction," "appeasement."
"Reconciliation" is the effect of propitiation, satisfaction, appeasement, it is not propitiation itself.
The word "atonement" should read "propitiation" in the Bible.
It propitiated, satisfied, appeased the justice of God (Ro 3:25-26) on sin,
making it possible for sin to be justly forgiven (cancelled) by God,
which forgiveness comes only through faith in Jesus Christ.
It is exactly that.
Jesus was made a sin offering for us. (2Co 5:21)
Again, your understanding is incomplete. Let's prosecute the meaning of 2Co 5:21.
"Sin offering" refers to the OT sin offering, where the animal was made a sin-bearer
by the offerer transferring his sin to the animal (Lev 1:4, 4:4).
The animal was then slaughtered, taking the death penalty for sin in the sinner's place.
All "penalty" is penal, punishment, judgment.
The punishment for the offerer's sin was taken by the animal in the offerer's place.
Jesus was made a sin bearer (1Pe 2:24) of our sin for us.
Jesus took the death penalty for our sin on the cross in atonement (propitiation, satisfaction,
appeasement) to God's justice.
"God presented Jesus as a sacrifice of atonement. . .to demonstrate his justice in
the sins passed over (OT). . .(and) at the present time." (Ro 3_25-26)
"Penalty" is penal. Jesus' substitutionary atonement was penal.
The atonement was a forensic exhange of our guilt
for Jesus' propitiation, satisfaction, and appeasement of our guilt
by taking the death penalty on our sin in our place.
Again, it's not either/or.Christus Victor is also true.
of course it is.
so is the church triumphant.
because Christus Victor is true.
"You are in error because you do not know the Scriptures." (Mt 22:29).Jesus ransomed us from the corrupting influence of sin which we sold ourselves into through the choices we made. Being reconciled to God has nothing whatsoever to do with a forensic swap.
Nor do you understand the substitutionary penal atonement of Ro 3:25-26.To honestly believe that being reconciled to God through the shed blood of Jesus Christ is merely forensic whilst leaving one manifestly in a defiled state and still inwardly wicked is beyond foolishness.
It's in the NT gospel in 2Pe 1:3-4.hath given unto us all things that pertain unto life and godliness, that by these ye might be partakers of the divine nature, having escaped the corruption that is in the world through lust.
Where is this escape in your gospel?
"You are in error because you do not know the Scriptures." (Mt 22:29).
"Go and learn what (Ro 5:12-21) means.." (Mt 9:13)
Nor do you understand the substitutionary penal atonement of Ro 3:25-26.
"Go and learn what (Ro 3:25-26) means." (Mt 13:9)
Then give a consistent and Biblical explanation to the questions presented here.
And we will go from there.
It's in the NT gospel in 2Pe 1:3-4.
Again, this is one of the many things Jesus accomplished in his substitutionary penal atonement for the sin of those who believe in him.
It's not either/or, it's and/all.
And again, you do not understand substitutionary penal atonement.
"Go and learn what (Ro 3:25-26; 2Co 5:21; Heb 9:28; 1Pe 2:24) means." (Mt 13:9)
Then give a consistent and Biblical explanation to the questions presented here,
and we'll go from there.
hath given unto us all things that pertain unto life and godliness, that by these ye might be partakers of the divine nature, having escaped the corruption that is in the world through lust.
Where is this escape in your gospel?
It's in the NT gospel in 2Pe 1:3-4.
Again, this is one of the many things Jesus accomplished in his substitutionary penal atonement for the sin of those who believe in him.
It's not either/or, it's and/all.
And again, you do not understand substitutionary penal atonement.
"Go and learn what (Ro 3:25-26; 2Co 5:21; Heb 9:28; 1Pe 2:24) means." (Mt 13:9)
Then give a consistent and Biblical explanation to the questions presented here,
and we'll go from there.
Righteousness to you is a provision, a cloak for unrighteousness.
his perpetual declaration of his own righteousness is skinski's provision, a cloak for his own unrighteousness.
Your a Lutheran Zone, not a follower of Christ.
If you were a follower of Christ then you would not cast aspersions on the doctrine of Christ which is the doctrine according to godliness. The doctrine that we obey from the heart by which we are set free from sin and thus become servants of righteousness.
his perpetual declaration of his own righteousness is skinski's provision, a cloak for his own unrighteousness.