You seem to be avoiding the question. What is God's involvement prior to the attacks?
God had discussion with satan concerning Job. "Hast thou considered my servant Job, that there is none like him in the earth, a perfect and an upright man, one that feareth God, and escheweth evil?" (Job 1:8) ... "Hast thou considered my servant Job, that there is none like him in the earth, a perfect and an upright man, one that feareth God, and escheweth evil? and still he holdeth fast his integrity, although thou movedst me against him, to destroy him without cause" (Job 2:3).
I have already explained to you the meaning of the words "although thou movedst me against him, to destroy him without cause"
satan wanted God to move against Job, but only satan moved against Job, and that without cause.
the words "although thou movedst me" are translated from the Hebrew word sûṯ which means to incite, to urge, to allure, to entice, to instigate.
While satan urged God to afflict Job ... God did not do so in Job 1 or in Job 2.
satan was the one who "moved" against Job ...
is it your belief that God was responsible for killing Job's children, killing Job's servants, killing Job's herds???
Besides setting limits for satan, how do you describe God's actions precipitating Job's ordeal, specifically in his dialogue with satan?
If your view is that satan already had access to Job because of the Fall of Man, then it stands to reason satan would have already attacked Job. No?
I believe satan had already tried to afflict Job, but was thwarted by the "hedge" God had placed around Job.
If you do not agree that satan had already tried to afflict Job, then please explain how satan knew about God's hedge at the time God and satan had their discussion.
Evidently, God had to remove the hedge so that satan could attack. Yes? Otherwise satan would not be able to attack Job, would he? How would you explain otherwise?
God did not "remove" the hedge. God merely lowered the hedge so satan could not outright kill Job.
Here is what I submitted back in April:
God lowered the hedge satan complained about ... but hedged Job which restricted satan from killing Job.
3 And the LORD said unto Satan, Hast thou considered my servant Job, that there is none like him in the earth, a perfect and an upright man, one that feareth God, and escheweth evil? and still he holdeth fast his integrity, although thou movedst me against him, to destroy him without cause.
4 And Satan answered the LORD, and said, Skin for skin, yea, all that a man hath will he give for his life.
5 But put forth thine hand now, and touch his bone and his flesh, and he will curse thee to thy face.
6 And the LORD said unto Satan, Behold, he is in thine hand; but save his life.
7 So went Satan forth from the presence of the LORD, and smote Job with sore boils from the sole of his foot unto his crown.
vs 5 - satan wanted God to inflict Job.
vs 6 - God refused and lowered His hedge (which satan had complained was in his way).
vs 7 - satan smote Job with sore boils ... no mention of the PRIDE! you continuously claim was the reason Job suffered.
The one and only reason Job Job suffered was that satan attacked Job because Job was
an upright man, one that feareth God, and escheweth evil (
Job 2:3).
Here is what I submitted in May:
God lowered His hedge ...
"
all that he hath is in thy power; only upon himself put not forth thine hand" (
Job 1:12) ... resulting in the loss of life of Job's children, servants, herds,
"
he is in thine hand; but save his life" (
Job 2:6) ...
satan moved against Job, killed his children, his servants, his herds, then smote Job with boils.
Job has an excuse for his understanding because he was not privy to the discussion between God and satan ... you do not have any excuse because God has made you aware of satan's deeds.
You can claim God was the One who did what God clearly states satan did ... but you would be wrong.
I still believe what I submitted back in April and May. I also do not believe God lowering His hedge was a "removal" of the hedge ... nor is it indicative of any approval by God of satan's ultimate actions against Job.
please explain to me what you believe concerning this issue.
OK the friends and family were ignorant of satan's involvement. However, the
author was not ignorant of satan's involvement. The author who wrote chapters 1 & 2
also wrote
Job 42:11 where it is stated as a matter of fact that it was the Lord who brought all the evil on Job. Do you agree or disagree with the author?
The Author wrote the whole scenario from two perspectives ...
first, from the perspective of one who was privy to the information concerning the discussion and what satan did thereafter; and
second, from the perspective of those who were going through the ordeal and who had no knowledge concerning the discussion between God and satan and the resultant activities of satan in attacking Job and of God in protecting Job; and
I believe what was written in Job 42:11 was written from the second perspective ... from the view of those who were ignorant of satan's involvement as they observed what Job went through.
The Author utilized a literary device (dramatic irony) and if we do not take this into account in reading the book of Job, we can come away with an understanding which does not align with what the Author intended.
continued ...
.