yes thats the concern i have,,that is the Assad gov. can be held accountable for the stockpile of w.o.m.d. they possess. but say for instance we do attack his military (who then will be responsible for the w.o.m.d's.?),,,,so any weapons in their possession,(when we strike),are then the property of the first person who get's their hands on them.
so who are the rebels,AL Qaeda?,,,or is Assad backed by Al Qaeda?,,,both are a badly painted out come,that is Iraq at one time had in their possession w.o.m.d.,we the u.s. supplied it to them during the Iran-Iraq but we never found them. so where did they go,makes sens they migrated closer to the Israel border correct? remember in the 91 gulf war Saddam sent fighters to his enemy (Iran)in the 2nd war(Persian gulf) where did the w.o.m.d. go,to Syria?
but now there is still a problem that is if a government uses w.o.m.d. against a neighbor they(the government in possession) will be held responsible. but now consider,if these w.o.m.d. fall into a terrorist organization's possession,caused by the weakening of power of those responsible(u.s./allied intervention),,,then these weapons are in the possession of an terrorist organization and if they use them what will we do,declare a war on terrorism?
i thought this from the beginning(in the 70's),,,that is if any nation trained soldiers and sent them to attack any nation without a uniform on there was already laws(international) that declared them as spies. and they could be investigated by any government's military without a search warrant because (they,being spies) were not citizens of they nation they attacked.,,so why did we loose rights to do what they could already do by law?
so the correct definition of the word terrorist is and was from the beginning,,,"terror-ist",,,(1)Hebrew,Chaldea "fanners",stranger's,strongs #2114; to fan a fire,agitate:,,,,that is it is an organization/organizations used to wage war against nations/kingdoms ect. but not under the control of their country of origin.
so how will we past this point hold any nation responsible for the use of w.o.m.d. if after the interference(allied response),,,the Assad government's troops assigned to guard the w.o.m.d. in their possession,are then killed in action by allied response?,,,that is how can dead soldiers(who we kill) be held responsible for guarding them? or how will we hold a government responsible for being over powered by us,the u.s.?
we it seems in the year 2013 have a new definition of the word terrorism,,,it seems to mean,,,,"terror-ism",,,an UN-known group/groups with the ability to wage war against nations,states,religious organizations without the nation of their origin being held responsible: an organization,group/groups that exist within a state against the states will:,,,,,
lets say a month from now an hundred rockets launch from Jordan and fall in Israel,tipped with w.o.m.d.,,,,and Jordan says "hah!,there's a terror cell in our nation!!",,,and we send inspectors to investigate and find they used to belong to Assad,but he was overrun by the rebels last month after he was weakened by allied response?,,,,what then?
so who are the rebels,AL Qaeda?,,,or is Assad backed by Al Qaeda?,,,both are a badly painted out come,that is Iraq at one time had in their possession w.o.m.d.,we the u.s. supplied it to them during the Iran-Iraq but we never found them. so where did they go,makes sens they migrated closer to the Israel border correct? remember in the 91 gulf war Saddam sent fighters to his enemy (Iran)in the 2nd war(Persian gulf) where did the w.o.m.d. go,to Syria?
but now there is still a problem that is if a government uses w.o.m.d. against a neighbor they(the government in possession) will be held responsible. but now consider,if these w.o.m.d. fall into a terrorist organization's possession,caused by the weakening of power of those responsible(u.s./allied intervention),,,then these weapons are in the possession of an terrorist organization and if they use them what will we do,declare a war on terrorism?
i thought this from the beginning(in the 70's),,,that is if any nation trained soldiers and sent them to attack any nation without a uniform on there was already laws(international) that declared them as spies. and they could be investigated by any government's military without a search warrant because (they,being spies) were not citizens of they nation they attacked.,,so why did we loose rights to do what they could already do by law?
so the correct definition of the word terrorist is and was from the beginning,,,"terror-ist",,,(1)Hebrew,Chaldea "fanners",stranger's,strongs #2114; to fan a fire,agitate:,,,,that is it is an organization/organizations used to wage war against nations/kingdoms ect. but not under the control of their country of origin.
so how will we past this point hold any nation responsible for the use of w.o.m.d. if after the interference(allied response),,,the Assad government's troops assigned to guard the w.o.m.d. in their possession,are then killed in action by allied response?,,,that is how can dead soldiers(who we kill) be held responsible for guarding them? or how will we hold a government responsible for being over powered by us,the u.s.?
we it seems in the year 2013 have a new definition of the word terrorism,,,it seems to mean,,,,"terror-ism",,,an UN-known group/groups with the ability to wage war against nations,states,religious organizations without the nation of their origin being held responsible: an organization,group/groups that exist within a state against the states will:,,,,,
lets say a month from now an hundred rockets launch from Jordan and fall in Israel,tipped with w.o.m.d.,,,,and Jordan says "hah!,there's a terror cell in our nation!!",,,and we send inspectors to investigate and find they used to belong to Assad,but he was overrun by the rebels last month after he was weakened by allied response?,,,,what then?