A
Amellinialman
Guest
1John1:8-9 If we say we have no sin we make God to be a liar but when we sin he is faithful and just to forgive us our sin and cleanse us from all unrighteousness.
No my translation of (1 John 3:9-10) is no mistranslation. Your misunderstanding of the following scripture that is in error.1. Your mistranslation of John 3 is contraditory from what I see, John never said a child of God can not sin, he would be contradicting what he said in 1 John 1. In Chapter 3 is stating a fact, No one born of God habitually practices sin Or lives in sin Or lives like the sinner (the bible was not written in English, so you should be careful how you see things)
2. Jesus tells us how we will be judged, His children will be at a reward ceremony, The lost will be at a great white throne judgment, where they all will suffer the second death.
if I may ask, Which one would you rather be in? and why do you think you will be at that judgment vs the other?
No my translation of (1 John 3:9-10) is no mistranslation. Your misunderstanding of the following scripture that is in error.
No my translation of (1 John 3:9-10) is no mistranslation. Your misunderstanding of the following scripture that is in error.
(1 John 1: 8-10)[SUP] “[/SUP]If we claim to be without sin, we deceive ourselves and the truth is not in us. If we confess our sins, he is faithful and just and will forgive us our sins and purify us from all unrighteousness. If we claim we have not sinned, we make him out to be a liar and his word has no place in our lives.”
You need to see John was saying if one says he or she says they have never sinned they are liars.
One who sins is of the devil Apostle John tells us that.
(1 John 3:9-10) “No one who has been begotten by God sins; because God’s seed remains inside him, he cannot sin when he has been begotten by God. In this way we distinguish the children of God from the children of the devil: anybody not living a holy life and not loving his brother is no child of God’s.”
(1 John 3:5-6) “Now you know that he appeared in order to abolish sin, and that in him there is no sin; anyone who lives in God does not sin, and anyone who sins has never seen him or known him.”
(1John 3:8) “Whoever lives sinfully belongs to the devil, since the devil has been a sinner from the beginning. This was the purpose of the appearing of the Son of God, to undo the work of the devil.”
We have already been through this,
first look at your version..
If we claim we have not sinned
Then look at Johns actual words.
If we claim we have no sin
You will already see a major issue, You have changed Johns words, You have made him speak in past tense. Where in reality he spoke of a present tense situation.
Yep. the one who continues to habitually sin (live like the world) is of the devil.
Yet Peter still sinned, We know this because paul had to confront him face to face for his sin against the gentile people..
All of these passages speak of habitual sinning.. ongoing sin, Living like the world.
They must agree with 1 John 1. And vs 9 would be meaningless if a child of God never sinned again..
I agree that these passages in I John 3 speak of habitual sinning - they are Greek present tense. That is - the one who has been born out of God does not keep on sinning.
I think the above is a clear meaning of the passage, but probably not all that John was trying to say:
I think he was also trying to say that sin and the Christian are incompatible: That is - on one hand look at a person who has been born again and is indwelt by the Spirit of the Living God and has the resurrection power of God available - then on the other hand look at an act of sin in all of its selfishness, greed, pride, etc. = those two ideas are just not congruent and compatible. And if we as Christians can see this incompatibility of sin with who we really are in Christ, it should and will lead us to victory over sin. That doesn't mean we may not commit an act of sin, but it does mean that keeping on sinning and being a Christian are incompatible.
I agree that these passages in I John 3 speak of habitual sinning - they are Greek present tense. That is - the one who has been born out of God does not keep on sinning.
I think the above is a clear meaning of the passage, but probably not all that John was trying to say:
I think he was also trying to say that sin and the Christian are incompatible: That is - on one hand look at a person who has been born again and is indwelt by the Spirit of the Living God and has the resurrection power of God available - then on the other hand look at an act of sin in all of its selfishness, greed, pride, etc. = those two ideas are just not congruent and compatible. And if we as Christians can see this incompatibility of sin with who we really are in Christ, it should and will lead us to victory over sin. That doesn't mean we may not commit an act of sin, but it does mean that keeping on sinning and being a Christian are incompatible.
Scripture tells us who it is that is a Child of God, and your understanding of what is a Child of God is not scripture.lol.. A child of God is a child of God because they have been born (or begotten) by God via the death of Christ.
and we would be in 100 % agreement.
That is why a child of God who was born again and has a new nature, can not live in sin, Because the two natures are incompatible..
On this one we agree, but not on a few other issues!In glory, we'll sit around a table and let Paul, Peter, and John straighten us all out! (but keep Calvin at another table!
![]()
Hmmmm! Thinking about that last post -- I think when I get to heaven I am going to call for a bigger table with a few more people around it - I am going to need more that Paul, Peter, and John to convince you that OSAS was not so! I think I will add Barnabas, Stephen, John the Baptist, Andrew, Philip, Silas, James, and maybe a few more yet.
On the other hand, if I am wrong . . . . You might need the Lord himself at the table to convince me!![]()
Hmmmm! Thinking about that last post -- I think when I get to heaven I am going to call for a bigger table with a few more people around it - I am going to need more that Paul, Peter, and John to convince you that OSAS was not so! I think I will add Barnabas, Stephen, John the Baptist, Andrew, Philip, Silas, James, and maybe a few more yet.
On the other hand, if I am wrong . . . . You might need the Lord himself at the table to convince me!![]()
Sadly I fear if we are wrong we will not be at the table.. there is only one gospel. Not two.. So I fear one of us is in trouble
(1 John 1: 8-10)[SUP] “[/SUP]If we claim to be without sin, we deceive ourselves and the truth is not in us. If we confess our sins, he is faithful and just and will forgive us our sins and purify us from all unrighteousness. If we claim we have not sinned, we make him out to be a liar and his word has no place in our lives.”We have already been through this,
first look at your version..
If we claim we have not sinned
Then look at Johns actual words.
If we claim we have no sin
You will already see a major issue, You have changed Johns words, You have made him speak in past tense. Where in reality he spoke of a present tense situation.
Yep. the one who continues to habitually sin (live like the world) is of the devil.
Yet Peter still sinned, We know this because paul had to confront him face to face for his sin against the gentile people..
All of these passages speak of habitual sinning.. ongoing sin, Living like the world.
They must agree with 1 John 1. And vs 9 would be meaningless if a child of God never sinned again..
(1 John 1: 8-10)[SUP] “[/SUP]If we claim to be without sin, we deceive ourselves and the truth is not in us. If we confess our sins, he is faithful and just and will forgive us our sins and purify us from all unrighteousness. If we claim we have not sinned, we make him out to be a liar and his word has no place in our lives.”
If one reads the above scripture as you want to read it, then all it says is, if one says he or she has no sin, then they are liars. Your understanding of the above scripture does not say one no longer sins.
Also rewriting scripture and adding habitually does not make any sense, because John said in the same letter the following scripture.
(1 John 2:6) “But if anyone obeys his word, God’s love is truly made complete in him. This is how we know we are in him: Whoever claims to live in him must walk as Jesus did”
Jesus did not just keep from habitually sinning. We can’t be in Jesus if we sin at all.
(1 John 3:5-6) “Now you know that he appeared in order to abolish sin, and that in him there is no sin; anyone who lives in God does not sin, and anyone who sins has never seen him or known him.”
(John 14: 23) “Anyone who loves me will keep my word and my Father will love him, and we shall come to him and make a home in him.”
(John 14:21) “Anybody who receives my commandments and keeps them will be one who loves me; and anybody who loves me will be loved by My Father, and I shall love him and show myself to him.”
(John 14:21) “Anybody who receives my commandments and keeps them will be one who loves me; and anybody who loves me will be loved by My Father, and I shall love him and show myself to him.”
Notice John said anyone who lives in God does not sin. No way can one put habitually sinning in that scripture.
Also Jesus said that he would show himself to those who proved they love him by keeping his Commandments. Just how many of the people that just don’t habitually sin do you think have seen Jesus?
first look at your version..
If we claim we have not sinned
Then look at Johns actual words.
If we claim we have no sin
You will already see a major issue, You have changed Johns words, You have made him speak in past tense. Where in reality he spoke of a present tense situation.
It still stands.
People claim to be sinless all the time, The pharisee did, The gnostic did (any sin they commited was not their sin, their spirit was perfect) And of course, you do. so John had to adress this issue of sinless perfection.
You do have a problem don’t you? How can you ignore the following scripture? Did the bible that was rewritten to accommodate sinners change this scripture also?
(1 John 2:6) “But if anyone obeys his word, God’s love is truly made complete in him. This is how we know we are in him: Whoever claims to live in him must walk as Jesus did”
Also have you seen Jesus Christ our Lord and God?
(John 14:21) “Anybody who receives my commandments and keeps them will be one who loves me; and anybody who loves me will be loved by My Father, and I shall love him and show myself to him.”
May be your rewritten bible deleted the above scripture.
I show you scripture that tells you that you are wrong, and shows you that the scripture you quoted does not say what you claim. Yet you can keep on denying the truth.It is obvious we can not communicate, I have shown you twice now (actually more) the problem with what your saying.
You keep taking me back to other verses and just say I am wrong.. It don't work that way. you have to prove in the passage I am using, using language tools. I am wrong, You can;t do that.
Go ahead, Live thinking your sinless. it will not hurt me one bit