Deuteronomy 29:29 The secret things belong unto the Lord our God: but those things which are revealed belong unto us and to our children for ever, that we may do all the words of this law.
What did the Jew receive first?
- Thread starter just-me
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So they weren't abiding by God's perfect word. Right? They didn't have the heart nor the desire to understand.
John 5:44-47
44 How can ye believe , which receive honour one of another , and seek not the honour that cometh from God only?
45 Do not think that I will accuse you to the Father: there is one that accuseth you, even Moses, in whom ye trust .
46 For had ye believed Moses, ye would have believed me: for he wrote of me.
47 But if ye believe not his writings, how shall ye believe my words?
Okay.
"The law was given through Moses; grace and truth came through Jesus Christ." (Jn 1:17)
The distinction between the differences is still clear.
The law is not identified with grace, but distinguished from it.
Which is probably why the KJV added the "but," to make clear the distinction.
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I don't either. It seems to be all about this definition in the Strong's concordance that Elin called pagan. Click this Strong's Greek Lexicon Search Results and then type in 3466 in the 2nd box in Greek.
Remember what I wrote to you in this post?
http://christianchat.com/bible-discussion-forum/100117-what-not-where-bosom-abraham.html#post1709884
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Previously addressed.
You have chosen the pagan usage of the word, rather than the NT usage of the word.
First let me say that the Jews righteousness came by the Law and their obedience to that law - "And it shall be our righteousness, if we observe to do all these commandments before the LORD our God, as he hath commanded us. And no one has been able to do all and observe all the commandments beside Christ. Our righteousness is in and through Jesus Christ death and resurrection. To tell you the truth I am afraid to answer this because I feel that this is going to turn into a LAW thing . . . . just a round about way to get there.
But to answer: I suppose so - The language of "put it from you" is gentle compared to the definition - which means to thrust away, push away, repel . . . to repudiate, reject, refuse So to repudiate, reject, and refuse is little more than to say they weren't abiding by God's word that they had revealed to them at that time.
I don't either. It seems to be all about this definition in the Strong's c
Originally Posted by just-me
I don't either. It seems to be all about this definition in the Strong's concordance that Elin called pagan. Click this Strong's Greek Lexicon Search Results and then type in 3466 in the 2nd box in Greek.oncordance that Elin called pagan. Click this Strong's Greek Lexicon Search Results and then type in 3466 in the 2nd box in Greek.
Remember what I wrote to you in this post?
http://christianchat.com/bible-discussion-forum/100117-what-not-where-bosom-abraham.html#post1709884
Pagan is satanic in my opinion. What makes this pagan? Sides I was addressing psychomom. Why are you interfering with our conversation with 2 simple words that I know you have "previously addressed"?
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Not understanding the "rites" of the Jews is a major misunderstanding that needs clearing before we can go on if by rites you mean the physical things God gave the Jews to do to show them the spiritual. When the Jews demanded that the gentiles do these physical things like circumcision with a knife, they were in error. After Christ, we are told they are not necessary. Besides, if they were done legalistically as if the physical was enough without spiritual involvement it never was the right way to do them. You can see this when the Jews of Smyma said they were Jews based on the physical circumcision rather than the spiritual one. Paul says we are to be led by the Holy Spirit, now.
Some people get these mixed up with the spiritual guidance the Lord gives us, so understanding this is necessary to understand what Paul is talking about.
Correct BUT THOSE THINGS WHICH ARE REVEALED - THE mystery, "fellowheirs, and of the same body, and partakers of his promise in Christ" was not revealed until Paul received it from Jesus Christ.
P
psychomom
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oh dear! *shame faced*
i missed that one.
shall i respond to it here, or there?
btw...i think you're not using the correct definition,
if you want to fit the text you present.
it seems to me Paul is presenting the mystery as Jews and Gentiles,
one man in Christ according to the Gospel.
but i still love you.
Judah? The Abrahamic Covenant first given to Abraham then to Isaac then to Jacob and his seed.
That's fine. That is what this thread is about, but the thread was derailed before we got to that. This is what the Jew's received before the Gentiles. See the OP and you will know what this thread was suppose to be about. I love you to, and you have no reason to be ashamed.
That's fine. That is what this thread is about, but this thread was derailed before we got to that. The link of the other thread I gave is what the Jew's received before the Gentiles. It's a promise. I just wanted to discuss it without arguing, but with some people arguing instead of edifying is more entertaining I guess. See the OP and you will know what this thread was suppose to be about. I love you to, and you have no reason to be ashamed.
OP
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I gave you definitions from four scholarly Greek lexicons, all I got in return was ....crickets. It's hard to take this thread seriously when a preconceived conclusion is touted at all costs.
And what was the point that contributed to the OP? Were these 4 definitions you gave something that the Jews received first and then to the Gentiles later?
There was 3,000 years of people living and dying before Christ was crucified. We have scripture, in fact 78% of our scripture is devoted to those times, there must have been millions of lives of people who lived and died. Much of what is told to us of those times talks of blood and atonement. Paul did not start at the beginning of the world, God created the world. Yet you are saying the promise in Christ was not revealed until Paul? In the gospels it speaks of those people alive in Christ. Before, they had been asleep with Abraham, but alive. Is this not so?
Mat 27:52-53 Also the graves were opened, and the bodies of many holy people who had died were raised to life; 53 and after Yeshua rose, they came out of the graves and went into the holy city, where many people saw them.
It showed that there was a NT usage of Musterion and a cultic usage. You seem to ignore the NT usage in favor of the cultic.