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This may be a hot button issue here, but I'm honestly confused and I need answers regardless...
I think I may be having a problem with interpretation here. Let's contrast these two verses (they are the same, but from different translations).
Exodus 20:13 (KJV) - thou shalt not kill.
Exodus 20:13 (NIV) - You shall not murder.
OK, here's the thing. If we take it from the KJV's perspective, then all killing is wrong period. Yet in the Bible, God often ordered the Israelites to kill foreign peoples in order to punish them for their sins and drive them out, ordered the death penalties on those that deserved such punishment, and permitted killing for certain instances of in self-defense.
However, if we take it from the NIV's perspective, the word "murder" is used instead of "killing." This seems to suggest that the killing of a person is usually wrong except under extenuating circumstances (i.e. those allowed/commanded by the Bible).
Now I personally know a lot of Military Veterans in my life. They are good people, and they have killed for their country, family, freedom, safety, and etc. Often they had to do some extremely violent "action" (so to speak) from what they tell me.
Yet if we take it from the KJV's translation, they are sinful in what they did. But if we take it from the NIV's translation, what they did is justified because then we can reason that the word "murder" does not necessarily cover all instances of a human killing another human. Otherwise, the Bible would be contradicting itself when it ordered men like Joshua to drive out peoples and kill them for their sinfulness.
Understand, I am not trying to stir hot coals here or anything, because I know somebody's gonna come after me on this one, but I really have only three questions:
1.) What is the Biblical difference between "killing" and "murder"?
2.) If there is no difference, then how does this account for the use of military force, capital punishment, and judgement in the Old Testament per God's command?
3.) Did the translators of the KJV (along with some other translations) wrongfully substitute the word "killing" for the word "murder" when they wrote it?
I think I may be having a problem with interpretation here. Let's contrast these two verses (they are the same, but from different translations).
Exodus 20:13 (KJV) - thou shalt not kill.
Exodus 20:13 (NIV) - You shall not murder.
OK, here's the thing. If we take it from the KJV's perspective, then all killing is wrong period. Yet in the Bible, God often ordered the Israelites to kill foreign peoples in order to punish them for their sins and drive them out, ordered the death penalties on those that deserved such punishment, and permitted killing for certain instances of in self-defense.
However, if we take it from the NIV's perspective, the word "murder" is used instead of "killing." This seems to suggest that the killing of a person is usually wrong except under extenuating circumstances (i.e. those allowed/commanded by the Bible).
Now I personally know a lot of Military Veterans in my life. They are good people, and they have killed for their country, family, freedom, safety, and etc. Often they had to do some extremely violent "action" (so to speak) from what they tell me.
Yet if we take it from the KJV's translation, they are sinful in what they did. But if we take it from the NIV's translation, what they did is justified because then we can reason that the word "murder" does not necessarily cover all instances of a human killing another human. Otherwise, the Bible would be contradicting itself when it ordered men like Joshua to drive out peoples and kill them for their sinfulness.
Understand, I am not trying to stir hot coals here or anything, because I know somebody's gonna come after me on this one, but I really have only three questions:
1.) What is the Biblical difference between "killing" and "murder"?
2.) If there is no difference, then how does this account for the use of military force, capital punishment, and judgement in the Old Testament per God's command?
3.) Did the translators of the KJV (along with some other translations) wrongfully substitute the word "killing" for the word "murder" when they wrote it?