Where did King James only originate?

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Lanolin

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Dec 15, 2018
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There were two authorized version before the KJV—the Great Bible and the Bishop's Bible. Does the head of the Anglican church "authorizing" something make it infallible? If that were the case, the Great Bible wouldn't have needed to be replaced.
No, it just means they would rather you read that one than a different bible that might have been catholic. At the time, there was quite a big difference between catholicism and the churches that wanted to break away from it.

The thing with the KJV was not only was it authorized like some of the others, it was the MOST popular translation by far.
 

Lanolin

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Dec 15, 2018
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the Byzantian texts or manuscripts have more than the Alexandrian ones, I wouldnt say the Alexandrian ones were deliberately corrrupted. what probably happened was that some of the copyists made some mistakes or missed a few pages. Thats what you get...a chinese whisper version of the Bible lol.
 

Nehemiah6

Senior Member
Jul 18, 2017
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I wouldnt say the Alexandrian ones were deliberately corrupted.
Why wouldn't you say that, since you should know that the Gnostics were corrupting the Bible, and Alexandria was a hotbed of Gnosticism? Why are Christians -- of all people -- afraid of the truth? Origen of Alexandria himself may have been responsible for some of the corruption.

"John Burgon, author of scores of scholarly books on the transmission and corruption of the original Greek manuscripts said:

I am of the opinion that such depravations of the text (as found in Aleph and B) were in the first instance intentional. Origen may be regarded as the prime offender. ..the author of all the mischief...(Clement used) ‘hopelessly’ corrupt' versions of the New Testament which there is in these last days an attempt to revive and palm off on an unlearned generation the old exploded errors. He went on to say: "We are assured without a particle of hesitation, that Codex Vaticanus and Codex Sinaiticus manuscripts are of the most scandalously corrupt copies exant. They exhibit the most shamefully mutilated text which are anywhere to be met with, and have become the depositories of the largest amount of fabricated readings, ancient blunders, and intentional perversion of truth, which are discoverable in any known copies of the Word of God.( The Revision Revised, Page 336.)"

Even mild F.H.A. Scrivener -- the leading textual scholar of the 19th century (who actually wrote the textbook on Textual Criticism) -- made it perfectly clear that the worst corruptions of the Bible occurred in the early centuries. He also concurred that Codex Vaticanus (B) and Codex Sinaiticus (Aleph) were two of the MOST CORRUPT Greek manuscripts in existence. And those two are the foundation of all modern bible version New Testaments since 1881.

He said that though it may sound paradoxical, the oldest manuscripts are the worst. And many others agreed with him. But the hoax perpetrated by Westcott & Hort was that the oldest manuscripts were the best! Why? Because they hated the Textus Receptus.
 

posthuman

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Jul 31, 2013
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Umm, you are drawing your attention, not on the text which is in the final analysis that has been rejected by translators of the KJB and still can be contested the word "him" is "it". It would be the literal way of saying him (singular) can be regarded as the neutral "it" about the "words of the LORD" by its immediate context being plural. iOW, "him" was considered and has been discussed or debated by the KJB translators but they have not put it in the text as their final analysis demands so.
they apparently could not in good conscience print their work without that note, that 'them' is literally 'him' in Hebrew, i.e. in their best judgement, irrespective of what they chose to render as prose, referring to person(s) rather than book(s)
they seem to have felt their translation left open wrong interpretation and were compelled to give a bit of clarification lest such misunderstanding arise
 

Dino246

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Jun 30, 2015
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Why wouldn't you say that, since you should know that the Gnostics were corrupting the Bible, and Alexandria was a hotbed of Gnosticism? Why are Christians -- of all people -- afraid of the truth? Origen of Alexandria himself may have been responsible for some of the corruption.
Surely you have learned what a 'genetic fallacy' is? If you haven't, now is a good time to go and look it up.
 

RolloTamasi

Active member
Nov 10, 2021
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I always thought it was Southern Baptists that originated it.
What do I know anyway.
 

Nehemiah6

Senior Member
Jul 18, 2017
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I always thought it was Southern Baptists that originated it. What do I know anyway.
There was a time when the Southern Baptists were consistent conservative Christians. that time is long gone. The origin of holding strictly to the King James Bible was in the 19th century and it began in England.
 

RolloTamasi

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Nov 10, 2021
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There was a time when the Southern Baptists were consistent conservative Christians. that time is long gone. The origin of holding strictly to the King James Bible was in the 19th century and it began in England.
England.
Didn't they step on the Jews after WWI and were against them getting their own land after WWII, and today is a pagan nation?