So, I don't believe I've asked
you this before
, but what is
your take on what Jesus had said in
Luke 22:30,16,18 -
14 And when the hour was come, He reclined, and the apostles with Him.
15 And He said to them, “With desire I have desired
to eat this Passover with you before I suffer.
16 For I say to you that never again will I
eat thereof,
until it is fulfilled in the kingdom of God.”
17 And having received
the cup, having given thanks, He said, “Take this and divide
it among yourselves.
18 For I say to you that I will not drink of the fruit of the vine from now until the kingdom of God shall come.” [
see also Matthew 26:29 "...
until THAT DAY when I drink it
NEW with [G3326 - meta - accompanying] you..."] in My Father's kingdom"]
[…] But I am in your midst as the
One serving.
28 Now you are those having remained with Me in My trials.
29 And I appoint to you a kingdom, as My Father appointed to Me,
30 so that you may eat and may drink at My table in My kingdom, and may sit on thrones, judging the twelve tribes of Israel. [
see also Matthew 19:28 (and its
parallel-time-wise,
Matthew 25:31-34 and context)]
Do you believe all of the above contexts (the 4 separate contexts I provided ^ ) took place (were "fulfilled") in 70ad??