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Why the king james?
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Why Is It Missing? The verse is missing from some of the Bibles because the passage does not actually appear in the best early Greek manuscripts which contain Matthew. It is important to remember that the New Testament was written in Greek. These original documents called “autographs” were copied and passed from one person to another. In the process of making copies, errors would occur sometimes. Sometimes words were misspelled, words were left out, and on rare occasions, some copyists would insert some words. Today there are more than 5,000 thousands ancient manuscripts of the New Testament in our possession. By using a process called Textual Criticism we have been able to determine very accurately how the original”autographs” should read. A better explanation of textual criticism and the accuracy of our Bible is available from an article at the following link, “How Accurate Is The Bible?” The conclusion of that article says that the Bible is 99.9% accurate. There is no other ancient book in existence with so many copies and with so little error. The Bible is really unique. The Bible is very accurate! http://www.neverthirsty.org/bible-qa/qa-archives/question/why-is-verse-11-missing-in-matthew-18/
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Regarding chapter 18 v 11. Fortunately there are plenty of other places where we are told why Christ came, its not like that is the only reference in entire Bible about why Christ came, so it hardly matters, in fact it seems whoever wrote that verse in, did so to expand on the original, simply borrowing from Luke 19:10.
But the disciples of King James believes that you cannot do that, especially about the part that a woman should remain silent.
You mean the corrupted sinaiticus and vaticanus manuscripts. These have been proven not to be reliable even in the early church. The early church rejected them as Scripture.
The Bible is not accurate if it's 99.9% accurate. It still contains error. I want a Bible that is totally trustworthy, every word.
The Bible is not accurate if it's 99.9% accurate. It still contains error. I want a Bible that is totally trustworthy, every word.
That is why we need the Holy spirit in us that will guide us in all truths and everything that was said.
As you read through your Bible, the Holy Spirit points out the things you can believe and the things that are false?
Yes, because there is no reliable Bible; and that is why they all needs adjustments. As I has put down, that King James weren't perfect either. In the Bible, it doesn't says what is the right age when a woman can start making a family.
At the age of 13, James made his formal entry into Edinburgh. Upon arriving he met the 37-year-old, married, father of 5 children, Franco-Scottish lord Esmé Stewart, 6th Lord d'Aubigny, whom the Puritan leader Sir James Melville described as "of nature, upright, just, and gentle". Having arrived from France, Stewart was an exotic visitor who fascinated the young James.[SUP][6][/SUP] The two became extremely close and it was said by an English observer that "from the time he was 14 years old and no more, that is, when the Lord Stuart came into Scotland... even then he began... to clasp some one in the embraces of his great love, above all others" and that James became "in such love with him as in the open sight of the people often he will clasp him about the neck with his arms and kiss him".
The King first made Aubigny a gentleman of the bedchamber. Later, he appointed him to the Privy Council and created him earl and finally duke of Lennox. In Presbyterian Scotland the thought of a Catholic duke irked many and Lennox had to make a choice between his Catholic faith or his loyalty to James. At the end Lennox chose James and the king taught him the doctrines of Calvinism. The Scottish Kirk remained suspicious of Lennox after his public conversion and took alarm when he had the earl of Morton tried and beheaded on charges of treason. The Scottish ministry was also warned that the duke sought to "draw the King to carnal lust".
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Personal_relationships_of_James_VI_and_I
The Greek for 'authority' (exousia) is not in this verse. I guess the KJV translators were right when they said in their preface that it is useful to consult several translations to get the sense of God's Word.
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Beloved777
Guest
I use the original KJV mainly because it flows better in my mind with kind of a poetic vibe, but even the original King James has it's flaws. The word "Easter" instead of "Passover" appears in the book of acts for example. The NIV is a woefully misguiding version in that there are at least fifteen verses completely missing from the text. Example: look for acts 8:37 in the NIV and read what it says? Here's what it should say: Acts 8:37 KJV - And Philip said, if thou believest with all thine heart, thou mayest. And he answered and said, I believe that Jesus Christ is the Son of God." As for the rest, I haven't done any extensive research on them, but many times they will include some nonsense that says "Older versions do not contain such and such verses," but, my opinion is that this is a sly attempt to sow seeds of doubt in the mind of the believer about the Bible's authenticity. Anyway, I hope that helps answer your question. God Bless!
Yes there is another reason which is "because some man said so, and another man believed him and so and so on."
You uphold the KJV as completely trustworthy. Given that, would you please explain the incorrect value of pi in 2 Chronicles 4:1-2? No referring to external sources, footnotes, original languages, speculations, or anything other than the KJV itself.
Most of the Old Testament was found among the Dead Sea Scrolls. There are several copies or partial copies of some books. They pre date anything found before their discovery and are referred to by modern translators, so how the KJV only people claim that that Bible is more accurate?
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RobbyEarl
Guest
The King James is tghe closest thing we have to the original text in an English format. Is it perfect? by no means no. But it is the closest transliteration that we have.
Or it could be that we believe that God fulfilled His promise to preserve His words for all generations (Psalm 12). It is not a matter of inspiration but preservation, God preserving His words for us in the English language.
or it could also be that the KJV was a translation made in the early 1600's, and while it is fine, some 500 years later more translations have been made in modern and different languages , and they are fine to use to. so, God's word has been preserved, but not in the 1611 version only.
Of course this is the answer...God has preserved His voice in many languages and there are people translating the scriptures into every known language today as well as having it done in Elizabethan English in 1611. There is no difference. There is nothing "special" about 1611 to make it "The word of God only".....but I thank God for it being translated back then. All translations done by men have their bias in them. Now God has provided resources so that the common man can read the original greek - at the very least in the meanings of the words themselves.
The structure of the sentences and grammar need more formal training but even then whatever seminary you learn from they will give you what their belief is in the original Greek. They too become products of who and what is being taught them. The Holy Spirit has the final say on all things concerning the scriptures. He always reveals Jesus to us.
The structure of the sentences and grammar need more formal training but even then whatever seminary you learn from they will give you what their belief is in the original Greek. They too become products of who and what is being taught them. The Holy Spirit has the final say on all things concerning the scriptures. He always reveals Jesus to us.