I believe that it is very much part of salvation....and that when we OBEY Christ and are baptized....our sins are washed away by the blood of Christ....and until we are baptized we are STILL IN our sins.
False. See posts #20 and #23. We are saved the moment that we
believe in Christ/place faith in Christ for salvation (John 3:18; Acts 26:18; Romans 3:24-26) and obedience which FOLLOWS is WORKS and we are saved through faith, not works (Ephesians 2:8,9). Can we be saved without obeying the gospel by choosing to believe the gospel? (Romans 1:16; 10:16) NO.
CAN we be save and DISOBEY Christ?
Can we disobey Christ by refusing to believe in Him and still be saved? (John 3:15,16,18; 5:24; 6:29,40,47; 11:25,26) NO.
Mk. 16:16 JESUS said: He that believes….. AND (meaning: PLUS/in ADDITON TO)… IS BAPTIZED shall be saved; he that believeth NOT shall be damned.
Mark 16:16 - He who believes and is baptized will be saved
(general cases without making a qualification for the unusual case of someone who believes but is not baptized) but he who
does not believe will be condemned. The omission of baptized with "does not believe" shows that Jesus does not make baptism absolutely essential to salvation. Condemnation rests on unbelief, not on a lack of baptism. So salvation rests on belief. NOWHERE does the Bible say "baptized or condemned."
If water baptism is absolutely required for salvation, then why did Jesus not mention it in the following verses? (3:15,16,18; 5:24; 6:29,40,47; 11:25,26). What is the
ONE requirement that Jesus mentions 9 different times in each of these complete statements?
BELIEVES. *What happened to baptism? *Hermeneutics.
John 3:18 - He who
believes in Him is not condemned; but he who (is not water baptized? - NO)
does not believe is condemned already, because he has not (been water baptized? - NO)
because he has not believed in the name of the only begotten Son of God.
Would someone who does NOT believe be baptized? I think not because to a NON-believer baptism would make NO sense.
Many unbelievers have been water baptized in various false religions and cults, including the RCC and the Mormon church. I'm not talking about atheists, but those who merely believe "mental assent" in the existence and historical facts about Christ, YET
do not truly believe on the Lord Jesus Christ (Acts 16:31)
and are not saved. In other words, they
do not believe in Christ/place faith in Christ as the ALL-sufficient means of their salvation. Such people then go on to get water baptized as the means of receiving eternal life.
I believe that the Eunuch and Philip backs up my belief. Act 2:38
Acts 8:36 And as they went on their way, they came unto a certain… WATER:…. and the eunuch said, See, here is WATER;… what doth hinder me to be BAPTIZED. [v. 38]And he commanded the chariot to stand still: and they went down ….both INTO the WATER,…… both PHILIP and the eunuch; and he BAPTIZED him.[V.39] And when they were come…. up OUT OF the WATER….The eunuch REJOICES AFTER his WATER baptism.
What hindered him from being baptized? 37 Then Philip said,
“If you believe with all your heart, you may.” And he answered and said,
“I believe that Jesus Christ is the Son of God." John 20:31 - but these are written that you may
believe that Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God, and that believing you may have life in His name. The eunuch was saved when he believed before receiving water baptism.
Then Peter said unto them, {1} Repent,… {2} AND {which means PLUS / In addition to}....{3} BE BAPTIZED….every one of you in the name of Jesus ... {4} FOR.... the {5} remission of sins, {6} AND....... ye shall {7} RECEIVE....the gift of the Holy Ghost.
In Acts 2:38, "for the remission of sins" does not refer back to both clauses, "you all repent" and "each one of you be baptized," but refers only to the first. Peter is saying "repent unto the remission of your sins," the same as in Acts 3:19. The clause "each one of you be baptized" is parenthetical. This is exactly what Acts 3:19 teaches except that Peter omits the parenthesis.
*Also compare the fact that these Gentiles in Acts 10:45 received
the gift of the Holy Spirit (compare with Acts 2:38 -
the gift of the Holy Spirit) and this was BEFORE water baptism (Acts 10:47).
*In Acts 10:43 we read
..whoever believes in Him receives remission of sins. Again, these Gentiles received
the gift of the Holy Spirit - Acts 10:45 - (compare with Acts 2:38 -
the gift of the Holy Spirit)
when they believed on the Lord Jesus Christ - Acts 11:17 - (compare with Acts 16:31 -
Believe on the Lord Jesus Christ and you will be saved) BEFORE water baptism - Acts 10:47 - this is referred to as
repentance unto life - Acts 11:18.
*So the only logical conclusion
when properly harmonizing Scripture with Scripture is that faith in Jesus Christ "implied in genuine repentance" (rather than water baptism) brings the remission of sins and the gift of the Holy Spirit (Luke 24:47; Acts 2:38; 3:19; 5:31; 10:43-47; 11:17,18; 15:8,9; 16:31; 26:18). *Perfect Harmony*
Christ did not "recommend" baptism....He COMMANDED baptism thus baptism is not an option.
If someone truly believes and is saved then why would they refuse to be water baptized? I can't think of one Christian I know that has refused water baptism after their conversion. Who did Christ say would be condemned? Those who are not baptized or those who
do not believe? (Mark 16:16(b).
Considering Christ COMMANDED baptism one can not be saved when they "wait" rather than OBEY the commandment of Christ to be baptized.
These Gentiles in Acts 10 received the gift of the Holy Spirit and were manifesting the spiritual gift of tongues
(which is only for the body of Christ - 1 Corinthians 12) after believing the gospel but before being water baptized (Acts 10:44-48). This observation needs to be balanced, by the fact that baptism was not considered an "optional extra" for these Gentiles. It was a command (verse 48) that they were expected to obey. However, it was not obedience to this command that saved them, but their believing in Christ (verse 43).
Can we be SAVED and be in DIS-obedience to Christ's commandments??
If someone is truly saved, then why would they be in disobedience to Christ's command to get water baptized? Personally, I could not wait to get water baptized after I received Christ through faith several years ago! And I did receive water baptism as a SIGN of my conversion, but not as the means of my conversion.
Baptism is a MUST for salvation...not an option.
False. It logically follows that we get baptized after we believe the gospel, but if you are on your death bed (like the thief on the cross) and cannot get baptized before your death, you are still saved because you
BELIEVE (Acts 10:43; Romans 1:16) which is in harmony with Mark 16:16(b)
..but he who does not believe will be condemned. *NOWHERE does the Bible mention "water baptized or condemned."
Jesus is the author of eternal salvation unto all those who OBEY Him {Hebrews 5:9}…therefore…those not in obedience to Him will not have eternal salvation <3
So in Hebrews 5:9, who obeys Him? The saved or the lost?
I've heard many works salvationists use this verse to try and support salvation by works, yet *only genuine believers have obeyed Him by choosing to believe the gospel (Romans 1:16) in order to become saved, and only genuine believers obey Him after they have been saved through faith by keeping His commandments and practicing righteousness (1 John 2:3; 3:9,10).
In either sense, only genuine believers obey Him.
Unbelievers have not obeyed Him by refusing to believe the gospel (Romans 10:16) and without faith its impossible to please God (Hebrews 11:6), so unbelievers do not obey Him no matter how much "so called" obedience that they attempt to conjure up through the flesh in a vain effort to receive salvation by works.
So in either sense, unbelievers do not obey Him.