L
Deuteronomy 22:28-29
Suppose a man is caught raping a young woman who is not engaged. 29 He is to pay her father the bride price of fifty pieces of silver, and she is to become his wife, because he forced her to have intercourse with him. He can never divorce her as long as he lives.
Now this translation is a common translation derived from the KJV.
However, the hebrew reads like this:
If a man has (in his company) a girl (virgin) who is not engaged, and (he) lays hold of her and sleeps with her, there then upon discovery, he shall (must, lawfully, by consequence) give the father of whom he lay (with) multiple times the price of engagement, and he shall become accountable for the girl for all his days, because he violated her, and he may not cast her away.
Poeple say 'the bible forces women to marry their rapist', when in fact, rape isn't even mentioned. What it's saying is that, if a man finds a single girl and sleeps with her (by force or otherwise), then he is to pay the father a penalty price, multiple times the engagement cost. (Engagement costs in Hebrew days were to signify the man's ability to provide for a woman). And afterwards, the man is responsible for the woman for the rest of his life, and can never cast her away or send her away. However, nowhere does it say that the woman cannot refuse (particularly in th case of rape, for which there are also penalties in the bible), and nowhere does it actually even mention the word rape. It just says he violated her. In hebrew law, sex outside marriage is violation regardless of force or of the lack of it. And men are responsible.
The same kind of thing happens in the Koran. Things get twisted.
Suppose a man is caught raping a young woman who is not engaged. 29 He is to pay her father the bride price of fifty pieces of silver, and she is to become his wife, because he forced her to have intercourse with him. He can never divorce her as long as he lives.
Now this translation is a common translation derived from the KJV.
However, the hebrew reads like this:
If a man has (in his company) a girl (virgin) who is not engaged, and (he) lays hold of her and sleeps with her, there then upon discovery, he shall (must, lawfully, by consequence) give the father of whom he lay (with) multiple times the price of engagement, and he shall become accountable for the girl for all his days, because he violated her, and he may not cast her away.
Poeple say 'the bible forces women to marry their rapist', when in fact, rape isn't even mentioned. What it's saying is that, if a man finds a single girl and sleeps with her (by force or otherwise), then he is to pay the father a penalty price, multiple times the engagement cost. (Engagement costs in Hebrew days were to signify the man's ability to provide for a woman). And afterwards, the man is responsible for the woman for the rest of his life, and can never cast her away or send her away. However, nowhere does it say that the woman cannot refuse (particularly in th case of rape, for which there are also penalties in the bible), and nowhere does it actually even mention the word rape. It just says he violated her. In hebrew law, sex outside marriage is violation regardless of force or of the lack of it. And men are responsible.
The same kind of thing happens in the Koran. Things get twisted.
The rape victim were to do what her father decided for her.