A
Hello everyone, this is my first forum post, so forgive me if I mess up somewhere along the way.
My brother-in-law proposed a question that I could not answer. The answer I am looking for is one that agrees with both geographical evidence and Biblical evidence. He asked that if The Flood wiped out all of humanity except for Noah and his family, how did they repopulate the earth?
He understands that there may have been land bridges that connected the continents that we may have used to travel between the continents, but they have been submerged for over 15,000 years according to geographical evidence. So if we repopulated by land bridges, that throws off the accuracy of the genealogies of the Bible by over 10,000 years.
If we assume that the genealogies of the Bible are correct, and inerrant, then there were no land bridges between continents. So how did we traverse the oceans when inter-continental travel wasn't possible for over 1,000 years later?
Personally, I believe that since the Bible we have today, and the scrolls we have available for translation, were written by man, they have a potential to have errors. The only infallible manuscript was THE ORIGINAL, 1st edition, hot off the press scroll. This is my belief, so I tend to believe that maybe during the length of the spoken word, before people started writing it down, and during the millions of copied text, someone may have left out 1 or 2 numbers a few times.
I hope to receive a more conclusive answer, or some support for my own belief. Its something that I am wondering now. I Hope to return from work at 6 a.m. to an answer. God bless any response I get. Thank you in advanced.
My brother-in-law proposed a question that I could not answer. The answer I am looking for is one that agrees with both geographical evidence and Biblical evidence. He asked that if The Flood wiped out all of humanity except for Noah and his family, how did they repopulate the earth?
He understands that there may have been land bridges that connected the continents that we may have used to travel between the continents, but they have been submerged for over 15,000 years according to geographical evidence. So if we repopulated by land bridges, that throws off the accuracy of the genealogies of the Bible by over 10,000 years.
If we assume that the genealogies of the Bible are correct, and inerrant, then there were no land bridges between continents. So how did we traverse the oceans when inter-continental travel wasn't possible for over 1,000 years later?
Personally, I believe that since the Bible we have today, and the scrolls we have available for translation, were written by man, they have a potential to have errors. The only infallible manuscript was THE ORIGINAL, 1st edition, hot off the press scroll. This is my belief, so I tend to believe that maybe during the length of the spoken word, before people started writing it down, and during the millions of copied text, someone may have left out 1 or 2 numbers a few times.
I hope to receive a more conclusive answer, or some support for my own belief. Its something that I am wondering now. I Hope to return from work at 6 a.m. to an answer. God bless any response I get. Thank you in advanced.