House of Cornelius and the law

  • Christian Chat is a moderated online Christian community allowing Christians around the world to fellowship with each other in real time chat via webcam, voice, and text, with the Christian Chat app. You can also start or participate in a Bible-based discussion here in the Christian Chat Forums, where members can also share with each other their own videos, pictures, or favorite Christian music.

    If you are a Christian and need encouragement and fellowship, we're here for you! If you are not a Christian but interested in knowing more about Jesus our Lord, you're also welcome! Want to know what the Bible says, and how you can apply it to your life? Join us!

    To make new Christian friends now around the world, click here to join Christian Chat.
Jan 27, 2013
4,769
18
0
#41
Institution of the Passover
43 And the LORD said to Moses and Aaron, "This is the statute of the Passover: no foreigner shall eat of it,44 but every slave that is bought for money may eat of it after you have circumcised him.45 No foreigner or hired servant may eat of it.46 It shall be eaten in one house; you shall not take any of the flesh outside the house, and you shall not break any of its bones.47 All the congregation of Israel shall keep it.48 If a stranger shall sojourn with you and would keep the Passover to the LORD, let all his males be circumcised. Then he may come near and keep it; he shall be as a native of the land. But no uncircumcised person shall eat of it.49 There shall be one law for the native and for the stranger who sojourns among you."Exodus 12: The Passover


without becoming jewish , etc

hence, a new covenant. etc gentiles becoming saved by god through jesus christ. etc

28 And he said to them, "You yourselves know how unlawful it is for a Jew to associate with or to visit anyone of another nation, but God has shown me that I should not call any person common or unclean.2Acts 10:
 
Nov 22, 2015
20,436
1,431
0
#42

(snip)

So you're teaching folks to go back to that which stirs up sin and bears fruit unto death, when those in Christ have been released from the Law so that we serve in the NEW WAY of the Spirit and not in the old way of the written code.

It really does not get much clearer than that.

You can read more on that subject in these two articles:





Grace and peace to you,
-JGIG
Well done JGIG....we all need to bookmark this post #40 to use as a reference to the "law-keepers" that are trying to make us forsake Christ to go back to Law.

This is a very well documented post on the differences between the law and Christ. I encourage people to go back and read the whole post so that we are not led astray by every wind of doctrine and those trying to get people to look to the law again after coming to Christ. Post #40.

I especially liked the article above on the Law and the believer committing spiritual adultery by going back to it.

This picture below speaks volumes to what is really happening.




 
Last edited:

trofimus

Senior Member
Aug 17, 2015
10,684
794
113
#43
Jews had Law, Gentiles had conscience.

Romans 2:

"...but glory, honor and peace for everyone who does good: first for the Jew, then for the Gentile. For God does not show favoritism."

"Indeed, when Gentiles, who do not have the law, do by nature things required by the law, they are a law for themselves...."

"They [Gentiles] show that the requirements of the law are written on their hearts, their consciences also bearing witness..."

"The one who is not circumcised physically and yet obeys the law will condemn you who, even though you have the written code and circumcision, are a lawbreaker."
 
Last edited:
Nov 22, 2015
20,436
1,431
0
#44
The law is from the eating of the tree of the knowledge of good and evil. It is basically showing good and evil which is the same fruit of the tree in the garden of Eden.

Thank God that Jesus is the Tree of Life to us now and we are free from the law. ( His life in us fulfills the intent of the law without being under it's domination )

This Law is in all people because of the mystery of iniquity that is in world now. The gentiles without even hearing of the law of Moses instinctively have the same law within them. The Jews were given the Law to formalize it so that we can see that no one can measure up and that we all need a Savior. our Lord Jesus!
 
May 19, 2016
417
2
0
#45
Hello JGIG,

Thanks for writing...

Let's take a look at your comments...lots of issues (24 in fact) on the table right now!

1. You wrote: "Torah has not ceased to exist. As a functioning, valid covenant, however, it is obsolete in Christ and His Work of the Cross, the Resurrection, the Ascension, and His Perfect, Permanent, High Priesthood. "

My response: Obsolete (Gr. verb "palaioo") but NOT yet passed away! Read again (Heb. 8:13), where it is merely READY (Gr. "engoos") to pass away, confirming that it had NOT yet passed away as of the New-Covenant-era time of the writing of the book of Hebrews.

Therefore, Torah is still in force, even during the New Covenant era, just as the remainder of Scripture also confirms.

2. You wrote: "Those who are in Christ are dead to the Law (Rom. 7:4-6)."

My response: Keep reading! The law defines sin (Rom. 7:7; also Rom. 3:20; 1 Jn. 3:4). And Paul said we should NOT sin (Rom. 6:15). Thus we should NOT disobey Torah. Thus we should OBEY Torah!

3. You wrote: "Christ (of the Tribe of Judah) has been appointed as the Perfect Permanent High Priest of the New Covenant by an oath from God, replacing the Levitical priesthood, again, rendering the Old Covenant obsolete."

My response: Learn from the prophets! Christ comes to RESTORE the Levitical priesthood so that it will be pleasing to YHVH as in former years (Mal. 3).

Moses (Dt. 30:1-8), Ezekiel (Eze. 40-47), Isaiah (Is. 66:21-23), Zechariah (Zec. 14:16-21), Jeremiah (Jer. 33:17-22) likewise GUARANTEE restoration of Levitical Torah.

So let's stop misleading others by claiming the Levitical priesthood was replaced.

4. You wrote: "Have you achieved perfection yet?

Because that is the standard that Jesus sets forth in Matthew 5. Be ye perfect as God in heaven is perfect. If you don't achieve that standard, well, your own doctrine condemns you."

My response: Do YOU obey Matthew 5:48? Please learn from it.

MATTHEW 5:48 Jesus clearly views Pentateuchal Scripture as authoritative and applicable to Christians, as evidenced by His use of Ge. 1:27, Ex. 3:6, Ex. 20:12, Ex. 21:17, Lev. 19:18, Lev. 20:9, Nu. 21:9, Dt. 5:16, Dt. 6:4-5, Dt. 6:13, Dt. 6:16, Dt. 8:3, Dt. 10:20, and Dt. 19:15. Deuteronomy 18:13 shows that people should be blameless/complete/perfect (Heb. “tamim”, LXX “teleios”). Jesus also explicitly affirms that people should be perfect (Gr. “teleios”, Mt. 5:48). People who are “tamim” walk in obedience to the Torah (Ps. 19:7; Ps. 119:1). It follows that Jesus accepts that Christians should walk in obedience to the Torah.

5. You wrote: “Nope. They don't come close to your interpretation.”

My response: What? Read again! Jesus sends religious people AWAY from Him…why? Because they exemplify LAWLESSNESS (Gr. “anomia”, Mt. 7:21-23). The punishment for “anomia” is very severe in Mt. 13:41-42 as well.

So why do you oppose the law, claiming Levitical Torah is replaced?

Please, I don’t want you to be guilty of “anomia”. Stop opposing Scriptural teaching regarding Levitical Torah.

6. You wrote: “Logos refers to the Living Word, Christ, Who is God incarnate, not to Torah, which is merely part of the written Scriptures (G1124 - graphē).”

My response: Jesus equates God’s word (Gr. “logos”, Mk. 7:13) with Torah (Mk. 7:9). So, when Jesus refers to YOUR WORD (when praying to God, Jn. 17:17), He is referring that which INCLUDES Torah (per Jesus’ own use of “logos” in, for example, Mk. 7:9-13).

So let’s not pretend that God’s “word” in Jn. 17:17 somehow excludes Torah.

Let’s not oppose Jesus’ OWN usage of the term “logos”. Jesus uses “logos” to refer to Torah.

Moreover, Jesus says the Psalms are Scripture (Gr. “graphe”, Jn. 10:34-35) which cannot be broken. And, Psalms require Torah (Ps. 1; Ps. 19; Ps. 119). And Torah requires Levitical sacrificial activity.

So again, we have found Jesus AFFIRMING the perpetuity (not replacement!) of Levitical Torah.

7. You wrote: “Obeying every commandment that applies to you 100% of the time? That is the standard that Jesus sets forth, yes?”

My response: You now agree Jesus taught us to obey all applicable and properly observable Torah? Good!

8. You wrote: “Tell us, how were the recent festivities in Jerusalem this past April? I hear it's lovely there this time of year! Did you bring your sacrifice to Jerusalem?”

My response: Why presuppose Levitical/sacrificial/ceremonial Torah is presently observable during this present diaspora?

Have you not read that ALL Torah commands will be observed only AFTER we again return to the land? (Dt. 30:1-8).

Thus we first return to YHVH in obedience to Torah commands (Dt. 30:2), then we return to the land (Dt. 30:5), and THEN we can again fully obey 100% of Torah.

So, obey all Torah that you can right now! Prepare to obey ALL Torah in the future! (Just as Moses prophesied.)

9. You wrote: “If Torah Law is still in force, there must be an active Levitial Priesthood through whom you can present your sacrifices and offerings to God, yes? It's not like Levites can't be located today…”

My response: No…Moses said we will return to obey Torah (Dt. 30:2), but not ALL Torah (Dt. 30:8) until after we return to the LAND (Dt. 30:5).

Let’s get that order really clear in our minds.

And we both know that there is no functioning tabernacle, presently, in Jerusalem…so we both know that Levitical/sacrificial/ceremonial Torah is not presently observed/observable.

But that’s no excuse to oppose the abundance of Scriptures which confirm the forthcoming restoration of this Levitical Torah.

And, that’s no excuse to NOT obey Torah portions which ARE presently observable!

10. You wrote: “Again, you err in assigning 'Torah' where a living expression of God's Word is defined:

Jesus answered, “It is written: ‘Man shall not live on bread alone, but on every word that comes from the mouth of God.’” (from Mt. 4)

The Greek for 'word' in that verse is G4487 - rhēma, which is the living voice, or word, of God, not the Torah, or 'graphe' of God, which is part of the written Scriptures (see above).”

My response: You are wrong. The term “rhema” is straight out of Dt. 8:3 (which Jesus was quoting!). Read it in the LXX, and you’ll see! The LXX uses “rhema” (Dt. 8:3) to refer to that which comes from YHVH’s mouth. This is TORAH!

And, there is nothing in Jn. 5:39 that says that “rhema” cannot be used to refer to Torah.

Yikes!

Please correct your error.

Jesus quotes Dt. 8:3 (Mt. 4:4) referring to TORAH…this is how we LIVE, according to Jesus.

Why would you oppose the Torah by which Jesus said we live?

11. You wrote: “And what were they not believing?

Then they asked him, “What must we do to do the works God requires?”
Jesus answered, “The work of God is this: to believe in the one he has sent.” (from Jn. 6)”

My response: AND! If we believe in Jesus, then we should OBEY His teachings.

AND, what did Jesus teach?

That our eternal life depends upon obedience to Torah! (Lk. 10:25-28).

That our position in the coming kingdom depends upon our Torah-teaching and Torah-obedience (Mt. 5:19).

That those who oppose Torah (exemplifying “anomia”, lawlessness) will be cast away (Mt. 7:21-23; 13:41-42).

So yes! Please BELIEVE even in the teachings of this Messiah Jesus, Whom God has sent, Who comes to RESTORE even the Levitical priesthood (Mal. 3).

STOP opposing the restoration which our Messiah comes to bring forth.

12. You wrote: “The Psalms require obedience to the covenant in force at the time.”

My response: Jesus said the Psalms CANNOT be set aside. Thus, the Torah-obedient Psalms are STILL in force.

Thus, I use the Torah-obedient Psalms to ADMONISH (Gr. “nutheteo”) you to obey the Torah of those very Psalms, just as Paul requires (Col. 3:16).

And, Heb. 8:13 confirms that Torah persists even during the New Covenant Era.

AND, Jer. 31:33 has TORAH passing directly into the New Covenant.

So, even if you want to (wrongly) pretend that the Mosaic Covenant is no longer in force…the TORAH of that covenant still passes directly into the New Covenant (Jer. 31:33). Thus, you still have not justified your opposition to the Levitical Torah which passes directly into the New Covenant Torah, per Jer. 31:33.

13. You wrote: “The instructions about how to enter into and stay in covenant with God are quite different from the Abrahamic to the Sinaitic to the New Covenants.”

My response: All the covenants (plural! Eph. 2:12) are still in force. No Torah from any of the covenants has been terminated. We participate in these covenants. Thus, we OBEY the Torah of the covenants in which we participate.

14. You wrote: “After the Cross, the New Covenant, ratified by the Blood of Christ, God Himself in the flesh, is in effect, rendering the Old Covenant obsolete, and is entered into by faith and maintained by our Perfect, Permanent High Priest, Christ Jesus.”

My response: Obsolete…but NOT yet passed away. It is only READY (Gr. “engoos”, Heb. 8:13) to pass away, thereby confirming that it had NOT yet passed away as of the New-Covenant-era time of the writing of the book of Hebrews.

15. You wrote: “The New Covenant is a fulfillment of the Abrahamic Covenant…”

My response: Yes…but NOT a termination of the Abrahamic Covenant.

AND, have you not read that the Abrahamic Covenant is to be fulfilled IN CONJUNCTION with obedience to the Torah of the Mosaic Covenant? (Dt. 6:10).

Therefore, our participation in the Abrahamic Covenant REQUIRES our participation in the Mosaic Covenant (per Dt. 6:10) as well.

16. You wrote: “The entire letter to the Hebrews clarifies and instructs on both the superiority of the New Covenant in Christ (based on better promises) and the obsolescence of the Old Covenant.”

My response: Careful! You keep making this same mistake…

The Old Covenant is obsolete…but NOT yet passed away. It is only READY (Gr. “engoos”, Heb. 8:13) to pass away, thereby confirming that it had NOT yet passed away as of the New-Covenant-era time of the writing of the book of Hebrews.

17. You wrote: “Torah, God's instructions before the Cross, were given to Israel at Sinai in the form of the Law.”

My response: And all Christians are included as fellow Israelites who partake in all the covenants between YHVH and Israel. Thus, all Christians should OBEY the Torah of these covenants in which they participate.

Moreover, AFTER the cross, the Apostles and Epistles continue to uphold and affirm our need to obey Mosaic Torah (e.g., 1 Cor. 7:19; 1 Jn. 5:3).

18. You wrote: “Torah, God's instructions after the Cross, were given to all mankind by Christ: Believe on the One God sent and love one another.”

My response: AND, the One God sent COMMANDED that we make disciples of all nations in OBEDIENCE to all of Jesus’ PRE-CROSS TEACHINGS! (Mt. 28:20).

Thus, will you obey Lk. 10:25-28? Jesus says Torah-obedience is sufficient for eternal life, applying Dt. 6 to YOU (see also Mt. 22:37).

HOW is this love for God to be expressed? In obedience to ALL Torah commands (Dt. 6;25), just as Jesus commanded that we obey and teach others to do likewise.

19. You wrote: “Do you live before or after the Work of Christ?”

My response: Nice try! But Jesus COMMANDED that all of His PRE-CROSS teachings be commanded to disciples of all nations (Mt. 28:20).

So, all of Jesus’ Torah-teachings remain IN FORCE.

Jesus taught OBEDIENCE to Mosaic judgments (Mt 23:2-3).

Jesus taught OBEDIENCE to greater and lesser Torah portions (Mt. 23:23).

Jesus sent forth TORAH-TEACHERS (Mt. 23:34, Gr. “grammateus”) to properly represent His ministry.

Torah-teachers do NOT teach termination of the Levitical Torah which Jesus comes to restore!

So please…convert to proper Torah-obedient ministry, consistent with the Torah-obedient ministry which our Messiah authorizes in Mt. 23:34.

20. You wrote: “The whole of Romans 8 does not support your assertion.”

My response: No! The way of the “flesh” and “spirit” are contrasted (Rom. 8:5-9).

The flesh cannot obey Torah (Rom. 8:7).

Therefore, by contrast, the way of the Spirit is to OBEY Torah.

Remember! The Spirit testifies that Torah is written upon our hearts (Heb. 10:15-17), not terminated and abolished and no longer applicable!

That Torah which is upon our hearts should be OBEYED (Dt. 30:14). Paul agrees (citing Dt. 30:14 FAVORABLY at Rom. 10:8).

21. You wrote: “Galatians 5 clearly tells us that your assertion is in error, for if you are led by the Spirit, you are not under the Law (Gal. 5:18).”

My response: No! Paul criticizes the Galatians because they seek justification by law without faith (Gal. 5:4-5).

That’s NOT my position!

Thus, you have not even understood my position.

Moreover, when Paul says we are not “under law” (Rom. 6:15), he also says we should NOT sin!

What is sin? Torah-disobedience (Rom. 3:20; 7:7; 1 Jn. 3:4).

Thus, even though we are not “under the law” in the technical sense Paul discusses, we should nevertheless still NOT sin, which means NOT disobey Torah, which means OBEY TORAH!

So let’s obey Torah in faith…just as Paul taught us to do…and just as Paul modeled in his own life.

22. You wrote: “Those who are in Christ and go back to the Law walk in Spiritual adultery, having died to the Law in order to be joined to Christ…”

My response: Careful! Paul criticizes FAITHLESS Torah-obedience…not FAITHFUL Torah-obedience.

Moreover, you’ve got the “spiritual adultery” concept backwards. Spiritual adultery (Heb. “zanah”, e.g., Ex. 34:15-16) refers to those who walk away from YHVH and follows the ways of other (false) gods.

Spiritual adultery is NOT obeying the Torah which is commanded by the Father, Son, Spirit, Torah, Prophets, Psalms, Proverbs, Apostles, and Epistles!

I never said anyone should go “back to the law” without Christ. Of course that would be bad.

23. You wrote: “So you're teaching folks to go back to that which stirs up sin and bears fruit unto death, when those in Christ have been released from the Law so that we serve in the NEW WAY of the Spirit and not in the old way of the written code.”

My response: No! I’m teaching people to obey the Torah commanded by the Father, Son, Spirit, Torah, Prophets, Psalms, Proverbs, Apostles, and Epistles! This includes the Torah of Moses.

Now, law WITHOUT FAITH stirs up sin and bears fruit unto death.

But now, with faith in the Messiah, we are free from the sin which bears fruit unto death.

Is that an excuse to oppose the very Torah which Jesus applies to us (Mt. 22:37 applies Dt. 6 to us)?

Of course not…

We serve in newness of the Spirit…

And what does this Spirit testify? That Torah is written upon our hearts (Heb. 10:15-17), NOT abolished or terminated or no longer applicable!

That which is upon our hearts should be OBEYED, not ignored as if no longer in force.

24. Do you teach people to OBEY or DISOBEY Lev. 18:23?

If OBEY, then Torah still applies to us.

If DISOBEY, then we've got some SERIOUS problems here…

Which horn of this dilemma will you take?


CONCLUSION: Will you continue to defend your position in light of the two dozen objections I’ve raised against it?

If not, then I urge you to embrace the Torah-obedient faith to which we are called as fellow Israelite participants in the many Torah-laden covenants between YHVH and Israel, just as the Biblical Scriptures declare.

Blessings…
BibleGuy
 
Last edited:
Nov 22, 2015
20,436
1,431
0
#46
The law with it's sacrifices is a goner for the believer in Christ! The sacrificial temple was destroyed in 70 AD by the roman general Titus and his armies.

Hebrews 8:13 (NASB)
[SUP]13 [/SUP] When He said, "A new covenant," He has made the first obsolete. But whatever is becoming obsolete and growing old is ready to disappear.

1445. [FONT="Galatia Sil" !important]ἐγγύς[/FONT] [FONT="Gentium" !important]engus[/FONT] adv Near, close to.
Complete Biblical Library Greek-English Dictionary, The - The Complete Biblical Library Greek-English Dictionary – Delta-Epsilon.

Here are some of the uses of this same greek word for "ready"..it is translated as "near".."nigh"

Matthew 24:32 (NASB)
[SUP]32 [/SUP] "Now learn the parable from the fig tree: when its branch has already become tender and puts forth its leaves, you know that summer is near;

John 6:19 (NASB)
[SUP]19 [/SUP] Then, when they had rowed about three or four miles, they *saw Jesus walking on the sea and drawing near to the boat; and they were frightened.

Let's not be committing spiritual adultery on our Lord and going back to the law. (Romans 7:1-6 ) Jesus didn't save us so that we could go back to the law. He saved us from the condemning of the law.

The law is not for the righteous which we are in Christ now. It's for the unrighteous as Paul says.


adultery-3.jpg


 
Last edited:
May 19, 2016
417
2
0
#47
Hi there Grace777x70!

You wrote: "I encourage people to go back and read the whole post so that we are not led astray by every wind of doctrine and those trying to get people to look to the law again after coming to Christ. Post #40."

My response: YES! Please go back and read Post #40.

Also bookmark ===========> POST #45 <===============

Post #45 raises 24 Scriptural objections to JGIG's position in Post #40.

Will you also refer people to post #45?

I hope so!

If we can't answer these 24 objections I raised in post #45, then shouldn't we teach people to accept the Scriptural position I've set before us all?

See post #45 for details.

Thanks!

Looking forward to lots of friendly chat about this EXTREMELY important issue...

blessings,
BibleGuy

 
Nov 22, 2015
20,436
1,431
0
#48
The Christian is dead to the law....period.

Titus 3:9 (NASB)
[SUP]9 [/SUP] But avoid foolish controversies and genealogies and strife and disputes about the Law, for they are unprofitable and worthless
.



Do not be committing spiritual adultery on our Lord by going back to the law. Romans 7:1-6
 
Sep 4, 2012
14,424
692
113
#49
This is a nice change. Hyper grace and hyper law folks going at each other.
 

trofimus

Senior Member
Aug 17, 2015
10,684
794
113
#50
Law does not apply anymore, not even to Jews.

Law was given only for a time, until the seed will come. And it has already come, 2 000 years ago.

Jews are mistaken in that, as always.

Why, then, was the law given at all? It was added because of transgressions until the Seed to whom the promise referred had come.


Gal 3.19
 
Last edited:
May 19, 2016
417
2
0
#51
The law with it's sacrifices is a goner for the believer in Christ! The sacrificial temple was destroyed in 70 AD by the roman general Titus and his armies.

Hebrews 8:13 (NASB)
[SUP]13 [/SUP] When He said, "A new covenant," He has made the first obsolete. But whatever is becoming obsolete and growing old is ready to disappear.

1445. ἐγγύς engus adv Near, close to.
Complete Biblical Library Greek-English Dictionary, The - The Complete Biblical Library Greek-English Dictionary – Delta-Epsilon.

Here are some of the uses of this same greek word for "ready"..it is translated as "near".."nigh"

Matthew 24:32 (NASB)
[SUP]32 [/SUP] "Now learn the parable from the fig tree: when its branch has already become tender and puts forth its leaves, you know that summer is near;

John 6:19 (NASB)
[SUP]19 [/SUP] Then, when they had rowed about three or four miles, they *saw Jesus walking on the sea and drawing near to the boat; and they were frightened.

Let's not be committing spiritual adultery on our Lord and going back to the law. (Romans 7:1-6 ) Jesus didn't save us so that we could go back to the law. He saved us from the condemning of the law.

The law is not for the righteous which we are in Christ now. It's for the unrighteous as Paul says.


View attachment 151010


Grace 777x70 wrote: "The law with it's sacrifices is a goner for the believer in Christ! The sacrificial temple was destroyed in 70 AD by the roman general Titus and his armies."

My response: The prophets guarantee RESTORATION of Levitical sacrifices. (Dt. 30:1-8; Is. 66:21-23; Jer. 33:19-22; Zec. 14:16-21; Eze. 40-47; Mal. 3:1-4)

Do you believe or oppose the prophets?

You wrote: "Here are some of the uses of this same greek word for "ready"..it is translated as "near".."nigh"..."

My response: Yes! Summer was near (Mt. 24:32), confirming it had NOT YET HAPPENED!

Likewise, the passing away of the Old Covenant was "engoos" (Heb. 8:13), thereby confirming it had NOT YET HAPPENED!

Thank you! You just confirmed my position.

Likewise, Jn. 6:19 has Jesus "engoos" the boat, thereby confirming Jesus was NOT YET in the boat. Thus, Heb. 8:13 confirms that the Old Covenant is "engoos", meaning not-yet-passed-away.

And remember also Rev. 22:10, which states that all the words of the prophecy of the book of Revelation are NEAR (Gr. "engoos"). BUT, here we are...some 2000 years later...and those "near" words are still not all fulfilled!

Yet again, we find confirmation that something that is "engoos" might not actually occur for THOUSANDS of years.

Likewise, the Old Covenant was "engoos" to pass away (Heb. 8:13), confirming it had NOT yet passed away as of the New-Covenant-era time of the writing of the book of Hebrews.

And here we are....some 2000 years later....and even though that Old Covenant is still "engoos" to passing away, it still NOT yet passed away....just as all the prophecies of Revelation have NOT yet occurred either.

We have now found further Scriptural confirmation of my interpretation of Heb. 8:13.

How do you answer this?

You also wrote: "The law is not for the righteous which we are in Christ now. It's for the unrighteous as Paul says."

My response: But Paul also took a vow to prove OBEDIENCE to Torah (Ac. 21), and we should imitate that Torah-obedience (1 Cor. 11:1; Php. 4:9).

So you've NOT given a full accounting of Paul's position on Torah.

Remember, Paul said KEEP God's commands (1 Cor. 7:19)...not pretend they are no longer applicable!

Where are God's commands found? The written Torah of Moses (1 Ki. 2:3).

Furthermore, you wrote: "The law is not for the righteous which we are in Christ now. It's for the unrighteous as Paul says."

My response: Really? So only the UNRIGHTEOUS people of the world should obey Torah?

Only UNRIGHTEOUS people should obey the "do not murder" command?

Of course that's not Paul's point in 1 Ti. 1:9!

Rather, the "do not murder" command is for unrighteous people....why? Because righteous people do not need to be told to not murder, because righteous people ALREADY OBEY that instruction!

This shows that Paul PRESUMES that righteous people properly obey Torah (not disobey it!)

Remember...Paul said we should NOT sin (Rom. 6:15), which means NOT disobey Torah (Rom. 7:7; 3:20), which means OBEY Torah.

Why do you continue to refuse to answer this Pauline conception of sin and Torah-obedience?

Look again! In the VERY PASSAGE you just referenced, Paul views "sin" as a BAD thing (1 Ti. 1:9).

So if sin (Torah-disobedience) is bad (according to Paul), then Torah-obedience MUST be good (according to Paul).

Why do you continue to resist the simple and plain force of these Scriptural considerations?

blessings...
BibleGuy

 
Last edited:
Sep 4, 2012
14,424
692
113
#52
FWIW, those who walk by the spirit through faith fulfill every righteous thing demanded by the law. This they do by hearkening to and following Christ's spirit, not the letter.
 
May 19, 2016
417
2
0
#53
Law does not apply anymore, not even to Jews.

Law was given only for a time, until the seed will come. And it has already come, 2 000 years ago.

Jews are mistaken in that, as always.

Why, then, was the law given at all? It was added because of transgressions until the Seed to whom the promise referred had come.


Gal 3.19
Hi Trofimus!

Thanks for writing...

I'd say you've taken Gal. 3:19 out of the broader context of Scripture...

Think about it...

You're saying that Torah only applies until Jesus came?

Is that REALLY the ONLY purpose of Torah? To point us to Jesus?

Doesn't Jesus ALSO point us straight back to Torah? (Lk. 10:25-28

And then, why did Jesus send forth Torah TEACHERS (Gr. "grammateus", Mt. 23:34) to properly represent His ministry?

Why did Jesus APPLY Dt. 6 to us in Mt. 22:37?

Why did Jesus say that our position in the coming kingdom DEPENDS upon our Torah-obedience and Torah-teaching? (Mt. 5:19)

Why does Jesus say He will cast AWAY religious people who exemplify Torah-lessness (Gr. "anomia". Mt. 7:21-23)?

You've got lots of explainin' to do here!

blessings...
BibleGuy
 
May 19, 2016
417
2
0
#54
FWIW, those who walk by the spirit through faith fulfill every righteous thing demanded by the law. This they do by hearkening to and following Christ's spirit, not the letter.
Didn't Jesus APPLY the "letter" to us? (Mt. 22:37 applies Dt. 6 to us).

And HOW do we express this love for God? Through OBEDIENCE to Torah commands (Dt. 6:25).

Hence, the Spirit writes Torah upon our hearts (Heb. 10:15-16) so that we may obey it...not disobey it!.

blessings..
BibleGuy
 

trofimus

Senior Member
Aug 17, 2015
10,684
794
113
#55
Hi Trofimus!

Thanks for writing...

I'd say you've taken Gal. 3:19 out of the broader context of Scripture...

Think about it...

You're saying that Torah only applies until Jesus came?

Is that REALLY the ONLY purpose of Torah? To point us to Jesus?

Doesn't Jesus ALSO point us straight back to Torah? (Lk. 10:25-28

And then, why did Jesus send forth Torah TEACHERS (Gr. "grammateus", Mt. 23:34) to properly represent His ministry?

Why did Jesus APPLY Dt. 6 to us in Mt. 22:37?

Why did Jesus say that our position in the coming kingdom DEPENDS upon our Torah-obedience and Torah-teaching? (Mt. 5:19)

Why does Jesus say He will cast AWAY religious people who exemplify Torah-lessness (Gr. "anomia". Mt. 7:21-23)?

You've got lots of explainin' to do here!

blessings...
BibleGuy

There is no "torah" word in the New Testament, so let us use the terms we should be using - the Law.

That law does not apply anymore does not mean that all what is written in the Law was temporary. Murder will be always wrong. Stealing too. Etc.

Why we mean by "law does not apply anymore" is the system, the code.

The same situation when some country changes civic code. The old one cannot be applied anymore, but the new one will have many things repeated from the old one.

Example:
"Do not murder" still applies.
"Do not eat pork" does not apply anymore.
 
May 19, 2016
417
2
0
#57
This is a nice change. Hyper grace and hyper law folks going at each other.

Hey there!

Rather, I am HYPER-BIBLE!

Scripture upholds BOTH grace and law.

Look at Moses (Ex. 33:13). He perceived YHVH's grace...and then did what? He sought to know YHVH and His ways.

Where did YHVH's ways come to be written? The written Torah of Moses (1 Ki. 2:3).

THAT's the proper response to YHVH's grace...seek to know YHVH and His ways in obedience to Torah which He commands.

Remember? Those who faithfully obeyed Torah (and followed Jesus) in synagogues continued in YHVH's grace there.

Here's the confirmation: In Exodus 33:13 we see that the proper response to YHVH’s grace (Heb. “chen”, Gr. LXX “charis”) is to know Him and His ways. YHVH’s ways are contained in the written Torah of Moses (1 Ki. 2:3). Since YHVH’s grace extends to Christians (Ac. 13:43), it follows that the proper Christian response to YHVH’s grace is to know Him and His ways contained in the Torah. Thus, Christians should obey the Torah.

It's the SAME grace (Gr. "charis") in Ex. 33:13 and in Ac. 13:43.

And yes...this IS an exciting chat, eh?

blessings....
BibleGuy
 
May 19, 2016
417
2
0
#59
There is no "torah" word in the New Testament, so let us use the terms we should be using - the Law.

That law does not apply anymore does not mean that all what is written in the Law was temporary. Murder will be always wrong. Stealing too. Etc.

Why we mean by "law does not apply anymore" is the system, the code.

The same situation when some country changes civic code. The old one cannot be applied anymore, but the new one will have many things repeated from the old one.

Example:
"Do not murder" still applies.
"Do not eat pork" does not apply anymore.

My response: The greek word "nomos" ROUTINELY refers to "Torah"...so let's not pretend that New Testament Scriptures do not routinely cite, reference, and apply Torah to us!

Remember, Jesus applies Dt. 6 to us (Mt. 22:37). That's TORAH!

Do you claim Dt. 6 is not Torah?

That would be a strange position...

You wrote: " 'Do not eat pork' does not apply anymore."

My response: Rather! Peter APPLIES Leviticus 11 to us (1 Pe. 1:15-16).

Careful!

blessings...
BibleGuy
 
Nov 22, 2015
20,436
1,431
0
#60
The purpose of the law was :

1) To reveal our sinful state. Rom 3:20

2) To inflame sin Rom 7:8

3) To minister death in us Rom 7:10-11

4) To lead us to Christ Gal 3:24

The law is good and holy! But the purpose of the law was not for righteousness or salvation at all, it was to manifest sin in our lives, so that the purpose of grace which is in Jesus is to manifest salvation. Grace does not set aside the law, but completely satisfied it.

The law is not for the righteous but for the unrighteous.

1 Timothy 1:6-9 (NASB)
[SUP]6 [/SUP] For some men, straying from these things, have turned aside to fruitless discussion,
[SUP]7 [/SUP] wanting to be teachers of the Law, even though they do not understand either what they are saying or the matters about which they make confident assertions.

[SUP]8 [/SUP] But we know that the Law is good, if one uses it lawfully,

[SUP]9[/SUP] realizing the fact that law is not made for a righteous person, but for those who are lawless and rebellious, for the ungodly and sinners, for the unholy and profane, for those who kill their fathers or mothers, for murderers


Col 2:13-15 is where in says that Christ "disarmed" satan having cancelled out the certificate of debt consisting of decrees against us and He nailed it to the cross. Satan uses the law against us.

Satan comes and says to you - you broke the law - you are condemned now according to the law. BUT our Lord took that punishment for breaking that law for us. When Christ takes away the condemnation of the law which satan uses against when he accuses us - he is being "disarmed".

If disarmed means anything - it means he did have a weapon but now he doesn't because of our Lord. How great is our salvation in Him!