FreeGrace2 said:
2 Thess 2 PROVES that the Lord's "coming" and "our being gathered to Him" is AFTER the man of sin is REVEALED.
Now, this is JUST classic! All you've got is smoke and mirrors. NO actual verses telling us that raptured people then go to heaven.
So you can stop pretending that they do. They don't or the Bible would have told us.
And you can stop your silly games with "seems that way with a cursory reading".
No, John said in plain language that the gathering (or rapture to you) occurs WITH the Second Advent. But you just keep wanting to dismiss or ignore that FACT.
You have it exactly BACKWARD. This is what John actually wrote:
3 Don’t let anyone deceive you in any way, for that day will not come until the rebellion occurs and the man of lawlessness is revealed, the man doomed to destruction.
You will probably disagree, but "that day" refers to v.1 and "the coming of our Lord", because He actually comes on a DAY. So John clearly teaches that the Second Advent and gathering doesn't occur UNTIL the "rebellion" (guess what that means) occurs and the "man of lawlessness is revealed".
So you are the one who has it backward.
When you make these statements, it would be good to either cite the verse where you got it, or quote the verse/passage. As it stands, all you are doing is opining. I'm not interesting in opinions, but what the Word of God says.
Yes, like an opinion. Only guessing.
You are simply reading the verse the way you want to read it. The "coming of the Lord" is the Second Advent.
And that's why you are wrong. You have NO verse that says raptured people are taken to heaven. Period.