No contradictions -- this is the only way I can see it whereby everything actually fits together and makes any sense at all - including - and especially - rows 25-26.
The only thing that is "strictly Jewish" is the abomination of desolation, the destruction of the temple, and the immediate aftermath on Jerusalem - which affects both Jews and Christians in the region.
Everything else happens [at most] then-but-also (without question) in the future - with some things happening
only in the [distant] future. And all of the 'future' things are about
Christians only.
Now - it may be that the "Great Tribulation" itself is the aforementioned 'aftermath' -- but if so, then it must also "subside" into a [continued, general] tribulation that is still the same "tribulation period" referred to in rows 9, 11, 12, 13, and 17 - without "breaking" any of the verses that descibe it as "a single 'unbroken' tribulation period"...
The things of rows 3, 4, and 18 are "seen" by people in both "near-future" AND "far-future" time-frames.
I believe that the things in rows 5, 6, and 7 are only "seen" by people in the "far-future" time-frame.
Hence - the "near-future" people DO NOT see "all these things" -- but, the "far-future" people DO...
Row 17 puts the start of the "Great Tribulation" around 70 A.D.
Row 20 puts the end of the "the tribulation of those days" at [not too long] before the return of Christ.
The verses of both rows are referring to the same "tribulation period"...
"The one thing that I am absolutely-convinced-beyond-a-shadow-of-a-doubt about, is -- rows 20-22 have not happened yet."
As hard as it may be to believe - it certainly appears as if the "Great Tribulation" is actually ~ 2000 years long.
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