In the olivet discourse, Jesus describes future events in a non-linear order.
The order of these events may be determined almost entirely from the "grammar of the language" of the passages of scripture.
Perhaps the first especially-useful thing to understand about the olivet discourse is:
The context of the olivet discourse is overwhelmingly from sometime before 70AD to the second coming of Christ.
For the moment, let's ignore the date 70 A.D. and consider only the
association and
order of events.
I believe that it can be easily established without dispute that the 'great tribulation' referred to in row 17
begins at or just after the 'abomination of desolation' referred to in row 16.
I also believe that it can be easily established without dispute that the implied
end of this same tribulation in row 20 occurs not-too-long before the return of Christ, described in row 21.
So then, thus far we have - the 'great tribulation'
begins ~ 'abomination of desolation' and
ends ~ 'the second coming of Christ'.
Now, we know "absolutely for certain" that the second coming of Christ is yet in our future.
So, that leaves the question 'When did / does the abomination of desolation occur?'.
While keeping the following in mind:
Please explain Luke 21:24 in light of the fact that the things which it describes occur after the Great Tribulation begins...
In what span of time would you place "the times of the Gentiles" ... ?
Is it a long period of time or is it a short period of time?
Is it past, present, or future?
"What think ye?"