Foundation for my argument...
It is confirmed in scripture (and we all agree) that the "OT" points to Christ as fulfillment of that scripture...and testified by witnesses (detailed in "NT").
John 5:39You study the Scriptures diligently because you think that in them you have eternal life. These are the very Scriptures that testify about me.
...and for full clarification (not adding to Christ's meaning here or taking away from it), at the time Christ spoke the above line he was referring to what we've presently labeled "Old Testament". So it's not twisting scripture to claim Christ said...
You study the [Old Testament] diligently because you think that in them you have eternal life. These are the very Scriptures that testify about me.
Hopefully we're all are in agreement on this point.
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Next, we know that Paul wrote about Christ being the "2nd Adam" (or "Last Adam") in comparison to the Adam from Genesis, establishing a solid connection between the two men and that book.
1 Corinthians 15:45-47So it is written: "The first man Adam became a living being"; the last Adam, a life-giving spirit.
46 However, the spiritual is not first, but the natural; then the spiritual.
47 The first man is from the earth, earthy; the second man is from heaven
Hopefully we're all are in agreement here too.
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God says the end is told from the beginning...
Isaiah 46:10I make known the end from the beginning, from ancient times, what is still to come. I say, 'My purpose will stand, and I will do all that I please
The Hebrew word for beginning is "Bereshit", the SAME word translated as "Genesis" for the 1st book of the bible...and as we read all of Genesis, there's prophecy after prophecy of the end times, which are only confirmed in the book of Revelation: from the seed of the woman, to the ascension of Christ as 2nd in command, to the fate of each of the 12 patriarchs, etc, etc.
So it's also not a twist or stretch of scripture to say, "
if the end-time events of Revelation are to be understood, one's should look back to what was explained in the OT, and even as far back as Genesis".
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Amos 3:7Surely the Sovereign LORD does nothing without revealing his plan to his servants the prophets.
Revelation 10:7But in the days when the seventh angel is about to sound his trumpet, the mystery of God will be accomplished, just as he announced to his servants the prophets."
Here we have a link between an "OT" and "NT" passage establishing & confirming a truth about God's ways.
God does nothing until he first reveals it to his servants the prophets. Now if we let scripture explain itself, the original word translated as "reveal" is "Galah" (Heb.) and means "to uncover"...and matching this word to its "NT" counterpart translated as "announced" is "evaggelizo (Gr.) and means "to proclaim". So whatever God's going to do is first *revealed* (i.e. "uncovered; proclaimed; made known") to his servants before he does it.
Now I submit to you that his servants (his prophets) *clearly understand* what is being revealed to them because such is what "Galah" and "Evaggelizo" both imply; "to understand" (because God isn't the author of confusion), because a prophet's job is to *speak* God's message to warn people about God's pending action, which is exactly what he told John a few lines later...
Revelation 10:11Then I was told, "You must prophesy again about many peoples, nations, languages and kings."
However...the same can
not be said for those who are
not God's prophets; these people will not understand God's revelations, as they weren't meant to...which is only logical right? Because if "non-prophets" understood the revelations of God that would contradict Amos 3:7 because God reveals his plans to his *prophets*.
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Now as a precedent, not all of ancient Israel were prophets, just like not all of ancient Israel were priests, even though all of Israel were "treasured possessions" of God. And it's the same with God's people today, because Israel was for our example (
1 Corinthians 10:11) and God doesn't change (
Malachi 3:6). So not all of us can understand God's revelation,
but that doesn't imply none of us can. Prophecy is a gift - like other gifts from the Spirit - and not all of God's people have the same gifts (
1 Corinthians 14)...
14 Pursue love and strive for the spiritual gifts, and especially that you may prophesy. 2 For those who speak in a tongue do not speak to other people but to God; for nobody understands them, since they are speaking mysteries in the Spirit. 3 On the other hand, those who prophesy speak to other people for their up-building and encouragement and consolation. 4 Those who speak in a tongue build up themselves, but those who prophesy build up the church.
...accordingly we are to *rely* on those that do have the gift of prophecy...not discount them as "private interpreters" because it doesn't fit our held theology. It's what keeps each of us humble; to know that we all must rely on each other for the
building up of this body. Instead, we are to "
rightly divide the word of truth" (
2 Timothy 2:15) to see whether the
supposed "prophet's" interpretation is accurate (because we ARE to guard against FALSE prophets).
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My Argument: The Bride is not yet formed from The Body...
Now if all of scripture is fulfilled in Christ...specifically the "OT"...including Genesis (as Christ is the "New Adam"), then the formation of THE Bride must follow the pattern of the formation of Eve (called "Chavah" in Hebrew, which means "life"; the goal we all pursue), Adam's bride. And accordingly there is one particular event I find that scripture shows took place, which - I believe - MUST take place for THE Bride to manifest, and it's the following rhetorical question I pose:
Before Eve was formed, she was "in Adam" as a part of his body. There was no distinction between she and he. There was only Adam's body; there was only the body of Adam. But in order for she to form, Eve had to be REMOVED FROM the body of Adam; she had to be "set apart" from his body to manifest. So I guess the question is "
if THE Bride exists now, at what time had THE Bride "come out of" the body of Christ to manifest, if we all are still hidden with him *until* Christ's appearance?"
Colossians 3:3-43 For you have died, and your life is hidden with Christ in God. 4 When Christ - who is your life - appears, then you also will appear with him in glory.(<= this is a link to my "glory" post on this thread).
1 Corinthians 15:22-2322 For as in Adam all die, so also in Christ all will be made alive. 23 But each in his own order: Christ the first fruits, after that those who are Christ's at His coming.
All die because are were IN Adam's body at the moment of his sin. Likewise all who are *IN* Christ's body will be made alive...but if all (who believe) are IN Christ's body *now* [hidden in God], at what point have we been taken out of Christ's body to manifest into The Bride (New Jerusalem, The Great City of
Light) to live WITH God (in fulfillment of
Genesis 2:21)?
If we are still
hidden we have not yet appeared in glory (with "glory" defined as the shining, immortal body).
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To support my argument, note that Paul calls our physical body a "
building" and "
tabernacle"; "
house" and "
home"...
1 Corinthians 5:1-8 [brackets mine]5 For we know that if our earthly house of this tabernacle [house = "body"] were dissolved, we have a building of God, an house not made with hands , eternal in the heavens [eternal building/house = "eternal body"].
2 For in this we groan, earnestly desiring to be clothed upon with our house which is from heaven [heavenly house = "heavenly body"]:
3 If so be that being clothed we shall not be found naked.
4 For we that are in this tabernacle [tabernacle = "body"] do groan, being burdened: not for that we would be unclothed, but clothed upon, that mortality might be swallowed up of life.
5 Now he that hath wrought us for the selfsame thing is God, who also hath given unto us the earnest of the Spirit.
6 Therefore we are always confident, knowing that, whilst we are at home in the body [home = "mortal body"], we are absent from the Lord [i.e. away from the Lord]:
7 (For we walk by faith, not by sight)
8 We are confident, I say, and willing rather to be absent from the body [i.e. away from our "mortal body"], and to be present with the Lord [context: clothed in our Glorified body from heaven].
While the earthly body is our earthly "house" - a "building" made with human hands - the immortal body is our heavenly "house" (made by God).
So what is a "city" but a great number of buildings, houses and homes all standing together? And what is a "Great City" but a Great Multitude of buildings, houses and homes all standing together?
Conclusion: So the Great City, the heavenly city - called "New Jerusalem" - is the Great Multitude of the believers
all possessing their "Glorified Bodies"; it's the "place" that Christ went to prepare for us, saying he would return for us when he was finished (
John 14:3). This is why the great city shines, because it's the *transformed* believers in glory. This is why it's larger and covers more area than any known city...because it represents ALL of God's glorified people. But we have not yet put on this glory, so "New Jerusalem" has not yet "descended".
Isaiah 61:10I delight greatly in the LORD; my soul rejoices in my God. For he has clothed me with garments of salvation and arrayed me in a robe of his righteousness, as a bridegroom adorns his head like a priest, and as a bride adorns herself with her jewels.
New Jerusalem is the Immortal Body.