They believed they could have sex with them:
5 And they called out to Lot and said to him, “Where are the men who came to you tonight? Bring them out to us so that we can have relations with them!”
וַיִּקְרְא֤וּ אֶל־לוֹט֙ וַיֹּ֣אמְרוּ ל֔וֹ אַיֵּ֧ה הָאֲנָשִׁ֛ים אֲשֶׁר־בָּ֥אוּ אֵלֶ֖יךָ הַלָּ֑יְלָה הוֹצִיאֵ֣ם אֵלֵ֔ינוּ וְנֵדְעָ֖ה אֹתָֽם׃
And they shouted to Lot and said to him, “Where are the ones who came to you tonight? Bring them out to us, that we may be intimate with them.”
They want to have Relations or be Intimate with them. They clearly believe these are MEN who can be used for sex.
5 And they called out to Lot and said to him, “Where are the men who came to you tonight? Bring them out to us so that we can have relations with them!”
וַיִּקְרְא֤וּ אֶל־לוֹט֙ וַיֹּ֣אמְרוּ ל֔וֹ אַיֵּ֧ה הָאֲנָשִׁ֛ים אֲשֶׁר־בָּ֥אוּ אֵלֶ֖יךָ הַלָּ֑יְלָה הוֹצִיאֵ֣ם אֵלֵ֔ינוּ וְנֵדְעָ֖ה אֹתָֽם׃
And they shouted to Lot and said to him, “Where are the ones who came to you tonight? Bring them out to us, that we may be intimate with them.”
They want to have Relations or be Intimate with them. They clearly believe these are MEN who can be used for sex.
Anyway, the argument generated by the op is "can angels take on the physical material form of men..." which carries an underlying implication that, since there are examples of angels appearing as men, that every angel has this ability and can do so at will even for their own selfish purposes. There's something about that logic that I don't quite follow even if I'm not sure what the term for the particular fallacy is. Generalization, I think.
And the proof text of "sons of God" noticing the daughters of men doesn't work as a proof text either since it isn't clear if there are instances where either angels and/or men are referred to as sons of God where the context provides clues. It's too vague.
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