Asking...
Here is the proper exegesis of the words in 1 Thess. 4:17!
"The only place the word "rapture" is found in the Bible, is in Jerome's Catholic Latin Vulgate. Jerome had very poor Greek, and transliterated the word "ἁρπαγησόμεθα" wrong! Remember I said "transliterated, not translated! Jerome had poor Greek, and he took the word, ἁρπάζω and made the Greek sound like Latin. Thus harpazo becomes rapture. Except for the “arp” is turned around to say “rap” and the “azo” is not found at all in the word rapture. Also, "ure" is missing from ἁρπάζω. Plus, rapture is a noun, “the rapture” whereas ἁρπάζω is a verb, and is used as a verb. While some people may think the difference between a noun and a verb is slight, in fact, they are a completely different form of speech. Some of you will remember:
noun: person, place or thing
verb: action word, or a state of being (I am) transitive and intransitive.
Very different parts of speech. Harpazo does not appear in the NT as a noun. So, on that grounds alone, there is no “the rapture” in the NT. (I didn’t check the LXX)
Here is the key verse:
"After that, we who are still alive and are left will be caught up together with them in the clouds to meet the Lord in the air. And so we will be with the Lord forever." 1 Thess. 4:17 NIV
"ἔπειτα ἡμεῖς οἱ ζῶντες οἱ περιλειπόμενοι ἅμα σὺν αὐτοῖς ἁρπαγησόμεθα ἐν νεφέλαις εἰς ἀπάντησιν τοῦ κυρίου εἰς ἀέρα· καὶ οὕτως πάντοτε σὺν κυρίῳ ἐσόμεθα.' 1 Thess. 4:17 SBL Greek NT
Here are some a few key words of this verse.
οἱ περιλειπόμενοι means "left behind." No argument with this. However, why are Christians 'left behind?" If we are supposed to be leaving, then why are born again Christians the ones "who are left behind?"
ἁρπαγησόμεθα is future indicative passive, from ἁρπάζω. Something that is done to us, in the future. It means to snatch or seize. It also denotes the emotion of a sudden swoop and with a force that cannot be resisted. This verb also implies it will be done quickly. Rapture also appears as a definition in many Greek tools, but always remember, that is not necessarily the right translation, but comes from Jerome’s Latin, not the original Greek. A quick search of various versions show that no one actually translates harpazo as “rapture,” anyway. Including the KJV!
ἀέρα from ἀήρ acc, sg. Bauer (BDAG) says mist or haze, or 1, The atmosphere immediately above the earth's surface. 2. the space above the earth, sky air. It is not οὑρανός which means heaven, heavens, or firmament. So, no one is going to be taken to heaven, but instead, will be in the air, just above the earth.
ἀπάντησιν is a key word in this passage. It means meeting, so it is a noun. Not “to meet” (a verb) the Lord, but rather the Lord will be in a “meeting” (noun) with us. But more important, this word has a special emphasis. It has the technical meaning in the Hellenistic world related to the visits or dignitaries to cities, where the visitors would be formally met by the citizens, or a deputation of them, who went out from the city and would then ceremonially escort him back to the city. This is also used this way in Acts. 28:15, to talk about the people in Rome going out to find Paul, meeting him, and then returning to the city. Paul is always very accurate in his word usage. If he uses a word that means "accompany back" he doesn't mean leave and go to heaven, as the rapture heresy teaches.
In context, when the Second Coming happens (no rapture) we will meet Jesus in the air above us, and then return to earth. A renewed earth. There is simply no mention of heaven, nor being taken away from the earth. We will come back with Jesus. Paul uses this word twice in the NT in this way, which is the correct meaning - be swooped up in the air, and then return to earth with Jesus.
No rapture, at all, anywhere. Not found in the NT anywhere. Just mixed up ideas from Darby and Scofield, and those who listen to them, instead of Greek, the language the NT was written in.
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