I was simply taking your logic and running with it, IE. why stop at women if the logic you used in post number 1,033 - of how we decide who can and can't be ordained in church - is accurate.
I don't agree whatsoever that it is good logic - because if the logic you used was the way we decided on doctrine then it would end up in those daft and absurd scenarios I mentioned. The ones you seem so baffled about. Such as only being able to accept those of Jewish decent as "ordained elders" (You would tend to find them easily in a jewish orthodox church which is why I mentioned that) because of the biblical restrictions - the logic you presented would lead us to assume exist, and that must be implemented.
You didn't mention the things I spoke of, because I am sure you know they are ridiculous, but unfortunately, you did however use the very same logic in your post.
If you cannot see that then of course you dont get my response, and of course you feel it is poor ground for a discussion, because it will be as poor as the logic you presented - and which I persisted with to make the point.
I hope that clarifies the last response.
So, just in case there was any further confusion, to sum up:
1) do not actually agree that non-jews cannot be elders, or that we need to only attend a jewish Orthodox Church.
2)I would have to believe these things of I agree with your logic of who and who cannot be ordained - which you based on existing biblical examples of elder ordination.
*sighs* As already indicated, you mix oranges and apples by equaling ethnicity with gender and make an
argumentum ex silentio.
Again, I have by no means claimed that Paul even suggested that
NON-proselyte gentiles (your wording, as you wrote in your first response to me) would be to be ordained to anything in the church at that point. So, why make a point out of something that is not there?
And you still use the confusing term "jewish orthodox 'church'". Are you sure you are getting objective terms straight? Do you thereby mean messianic orthodox congregations (which in
rare cases might use the term "church") or do you mean non-messianic jewish orthodox synagogues (which would
never use term the church)?
You do understand that there was a difference between the church in biblical times and what happened after the jewish apostles were not on earth anymore and how things developed with the church afterwards?
You do understand that gentile believers (Christians) are not in the spiritual sense considered as gentiles anymore other than after the flesh?
I ask this, since as long as terms are not clearly defined between us, there is no profitable ground for any rational discussion. Your wording "jewish orthodox 'church'" is a tad bit interesting sounding though, yet utterly confusing.
Back to topic: No women were ordained to any offices in biblical times, this is what we know and for that very issue is what suffices for us to know.
Those who want to deny this and anachronistically impose their own, and contrary, position on this matter, both into scripture and church history, goofs out, to put it as politely as can be.